Rigby5
Diamond Member
Because the Jews were dhimmis. And the world was getting smaller and massacres attracted attention. Islam says to dominate by any means necessary. Why lie about it?
in 1990 Palestine was under the control of the OTTOMAN EMPIRE.
Jews were willing to BUY (that is for MONEY) land in Palestine-----
the Turks were DELIGHTED TO SELL-------wake up to reality,
rigby, habibi. Jews began BUYING land from the Turks in the early
1800s
Wrong again.
The Ottoman Empire was Muslim, and it was illegal in the Ottoman Empire to sell land to Jewish immigrants.
Jews only bought a tiny amount of land in Palestine before it was made illegal.
And Turks never has the rights to sell any land.
They only owned the land the way the Queen of England owns all of the UK.
It only means she gets a cut of the property tax.
It does not mean she can sell any of it.
Only the one with tenants rights can sell property back under the Ottoman Empire.
wrong again----the Ottomans mitigated the filth of shariah and DID SELL
LAND TO JEWS in Palestine. There were parts of the Ottoman empire
that were more autonomous and in those parts the local mullahs and sheiks did cling to the vile stench of shariah. The policies of the Ottomans really bothered those muslims who like the stink of shariah.
Sorry, but that is really stupid.
Ottoman did not have the legal right to sell any land anywhere in Palestine.
They only owned the taxation rights, not the occupation rights.You are a liar but you can do better than that. That statement proves you are not even worth listening to about Islam. Go away.Sharia comes from the Old Testament and is actually Jewish.
If you knew anything at all about history, you would know that Mohammad got chased out of Mecca, and had to take refuge in Medina.
Since Medina was a Jewish stronghold, Mohammad formed Islam there out of Judaism, in order to be as much like Judaism as possible, in order to get Jews there to support him.
Islam is almost identical to Judaism in every way, except that since he was indebted to his wealthy wife, he modified Judaism slightly in order to give women more rights.
Sharia actually predates Mohammad entirely.
If you think I am wrong, then tell us a single thing that Sharia says that is different than what Judaism says?