Lonestar_logic
Republic of Texas
- May 13, 2009
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But it doesn't say "gun." That's implied by the use of the word "arms" which can mean any weapon. Right to bear arms also guaranteed the right to own a sword or bayonet, all of which were in common usage at the time. So technically, guns could be disallowed, swords and bows and arrows allowed and that could still be considered bearing arms. (Yes, that's a ridiculous argument...it's meant to show the ridiculousness of claiming lack of specific wording means the intent is not there).
And the 6th ammendment says nothing about a "fair trial," but that's implied by the rights it does mention, which set the framework for a fair trial.
And the 10th ammendment doesn't cover separation of powers. Separation of Powers refers to the powers of the different branches of the Federal government. The phrase is not in the Constitution, but is implied by the actual separation of powers in Articles I to III.
And since James Madison, who wrote the 1st Ammendment, used the phrase Separation of Church and State and Separation of religion and government when talking about the Constitution he clearly believed that separation was the effect. It was certainly his intent. Surely no one is dumb enough to claim that the author of the ammendment didn't know what it meant?
So you resort to arguing over semantics. Typical liberal.
Since you're the one claiming that there is no separation of church and state because that exact phrase isn't mentioned, that makes it a semantic argument.
So, try again...even though the exact phrase is not in the constitution, Jefferson (who heavily influenced the first ammendment) and Madison (who wrote it) clearly believed that the first ammendment established a separation. The Supreme Court has consistantly held that there is a separation (and never ruled otherwise). So on what grounds are you claiming that there is no separation except from a purely semantic argument?
Wrong dickweed! That's not my argument .