Toddsterpatriot
Diamond Member
- May 3, 2011
- 102,137
- 36,184
Glass Steagall was to prevent banks from investing in their own risky ventures.Those who defaulted on mortgages had been paying them for years.
Some people started defaulting almost immediately.
I was only when their ARM rates almost doubled their payments after the 3 year freeze was over
Not everyone had an ARM and not all ARMs had a 3 year teaser rate.
Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac are required to buy up mortgages, by law.
I know, and when the law requires them to buy 30% subprime loans and then 50% subprime and finally 55% subprime, you can't say their issues were because they were deregulated. Well, you could say that, but you'd be an idiot.
And yes, Glass Steagall did prevent banks from writing crappy mortgages.
Prove it.
Of course some 0.5% or so always default right away, but that does not cause a real estate debacle or banks to default.
The major problem in 2008 was from massive ARM payment charge increases.
It was the repeal of Glass Steagall that CAUSED the Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac to by ALL the toxic derivatives containing subprime mortgages.
That was exactly and entirely what caused the whole economic problem!
Certainly you are free to disagree, as some others do as well.
But read this.
The Road to Repeal of the Glass-Steagall Act
It was the repeal of Glass Steagall that CAUSED the Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac to by ALL the toxic derivatives containing subprime mortgages.
Nope HUD forced them to buy crappy mortgages.
Thanks for the link.
Glass-Steagall was designed to stabilize the U.S. financial system by separating commercial banks from the capital markets and by prohibiting nonbanks from accepting deposits.
Weird, not a word about mortgages.
Wrong. Glass Steagall was to prevent banks from investing in their own risky ventures. Those toxic derivatives were their own risky ventures and would have been illegal under Glass Steagall. Neither HUD nor Fannie Mae had any choice in buying them. It is what their legal purpose was, once the banks created these toxic mortgage derivatives.
And yet, not a single word about mortgages.
Those toxic derivatives were their own risky ventures and would have been illegal under Glass Steagall.
Banks didn't lose trillions on derivatives, banks lost trillions on mortgages.
Neither HUD nor Fannie Mae had any choice in buying them.
HUD didn't have to force Fannie and Freddie to buy crap, but starting in the early 1990s, HUD forced them to buy at first, 30% crappy mortgages and by 2007, HUD was forcing them to buy 55% crappy mortgages.
How The Government Caused The Mortgage Crisis
It is what their legal purpose was
Before Clinton, they only bought high quality, conforming loans
Yes, before Clinton signed the bill past by Congress, to repeal Glass Steagall, banks only made high quality, conforming mortgage loans, so Fannie Mae only bought up high quality, conforming loans.
But the rest make no sense.
Fannie Mae never bought up individual mortgages, but bundles called derivatives.
Banks did not lose any money at all.
They created deceptive ARM loans they deceptively sold to Fannie Mae, and then we people could not make the new increased payments, they defaulted and were foreclosed. The banks made a bundle years later when they sold all these foreclosures.
But in the mean time, Obama bailed them out because they did not have enough working assets any more, since there were so many defaults. Obama should not have done that. He should have either bailed out the home buyers, or let the banks go under.
It was all the fault of the banks, so they did not deserve being bailed out.
You are wrong about Fannie Mae. Their whole purpose is to buy up mortgages from banks, so that banks can move on to new mortgages.
HUD has nothing to do with it.
It is Congress that set up the rules.
And neither HUD nor Fannie Mae knew they were getting crap.
That is the whole point of the toxic derivatives, in that they hid the details in bundles.
And no one had the authority to refuse to buy the bundles once Glass Steagall had been repealled.
Yes, before Clinton signed the bill past by Congress, to repeal Glass Steagall, banks only made high quality, conforming mortgage loans
Is there a nicer way to say you're full of shit? Let me know.
so Fannie Mae only bought up high quality, conforming loans.
You're lying. In the early 90s HUD mandated the GSEs buy 30% subprime mortgages.
While Glass-Steagall was still in place.
Fannie Mae never bought up individual mortgages, but bundles called derivatives.
Could you be more clueless?
Banks did not lose any money at all.
What are you smoking? Is it legal in your state?
You are wrong about Fannie Mae. Their whole purpose is to buy up mortgages from banks, so that banks can move on to new mortgages.
HUD has nothing to do with it.
It is Congress that set up the rules.
And neither HUD nor Fannie Mae knew they were getting crap.
Since the early 1990s, the government has been attempting to expand home ownership in full disregard of the prudent lending principles that had previously governed the U.S. mortgage market. Now the motives of the GSEs fall into place. Fannie and Freddie were subject to "affordable housing" regulations, issued by the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), which required them to buy mortgages made to home buyers who were at or below the median income. This quota began at 30% of all purchases in the early 1990s, and was gradually ratcheted up until it called for 55% of all mortgage purchases to be "affordable" in 2007, including 25% that had to be made to low-income home buyers.
Wow! Don't you feel like an idiot now?