drsmith1072
Senior Member
- Jul 30, 2009
- 6,031
- 250
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DOMA A) is not a constitutional amendment and B) circumvents the Tenth Amendment of the Bill of Rights.
1. Of course DOMA is not a Constitutional Amendment, it is federal law enacted under Congress's authority under Article IV Section 1 and their power to define the "effects thereof" of public acts between the States.
2. "Circumvents the 10th"? Incorrect. Circumventing the 10th Amendment would involve imposing restrictions on States in regard to their own laws. However under Article IV Section 1 of the United States Constitution Congress is specifically empowered to weigh in on public acts between States. (Whether a discriminatory law based on gender is in itself Constitutional is a different question all together. The fact that Congress is empowered to weigh on on public acts between States is irrefutable - from a Constitutional standpoint.)
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The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
Do you know what that means?
How do you interpret that??
Do you have a point?
Do you believe that asking questions while providing no argument makes you look smart?
BY the way the powers we are speaking of were granted to the federal government by the constituntion which was ratified by the states.
the 14th amendment spells it out quite nicely
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
Have you taken the time to read it yet?