MikeK
Gold Member
- Jun 11, 2010
- 15,930
- 2,495
The best answer to that question is the percentage of wealth held by the upper income levels during our most prosperous period, which was between the late 40s and the early 80s. If you're looking for an amount, just pick a specific time frame and extrapolate from it. A Guide to Statistics on Historical Trends in Income Inequality ? Center on Budget and Policy Prioritiesdon't lie. you DO.
the whole premise of your stupid video is wealth EXPROPRIATION and redistribution.
which is a fundamental feature of socialism ( initially, as then there is no wealth)
You people astound me. Are you just ignoring everything I've been saying this entire time or are you really this stupid? I can't even wrap my head around your logic.
One more time: I am not against the CONCEPT of wealth inequality. I am against the idea of wealth inequality reaching the point of 1% of the population controlling 40% of the wealth.
Try reading slower. You'll catch on.
I am against the idea of wealth inequality reaching the point of 1% of the population controlling 40% of the wealth.
What is the proper amount for the top 1% to control?