Listening
Gold Member
- Aug 27, 2011
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On the contrary. When we see that the great majority of the rich nations are also those that approach equality, while the great majority of the poor nations are also those with the most inequality, the reasonable conclusion is not that it has no tangible effect. There's a clear correlation between income equality and economic success.
We can see this in our own history, too. The period since industrialization when our economy performed the best (by more than two to one compared to both earlier and later times) was the 1940s, 1950s, and 1960s. Even if you lump the poorer-performing 1970s in there, those four decades saw per capita GDP grow more than twice as fast as it did in 1900 to 1940 or in 1980 to the present.
The "clear correlation" you speak of needs more support. I can corelate all kinds of things that are unrelated. Obtaining a correlation is just the start in proving a relationship.
The period you talk about could easily have been affected by other factors such as rebuilding from a war, technology advances, etc. I am not saying it is the case.
But I have heard this claim before and when I request additonal information or proof....suffice it to say I am still waiting.
Would you please define "rich nations" for me.