emilynghiem
Constitutionalist / Universalist
- Jan 21, 2010
- 23,669
- 4,181
If one is born male, always been considered male, was drafted (therefore, a male), always considered himself male, what would be his legal recourse if someone, for whatever reason, used the feminine pronoun in referring to him?
Dunno, there4eyeM
Would that count as sexual her-assment?
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