BenNatuf
Limit Authority
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- #801
Their "rationalle" is dicta, which is irrelevant to the application of the law as it has no precedential value. The argument is based on the precedent set by the finding not by the dicta contained in the opinion. If courts offer no precedential value to dicta why should anyone else?It is the courts job to apply the law, in applying the law they determine if the interpretation the excutive used in enforcing it is constitutionally consistent. It is not their interpretation they judge, it is the executives. That there are areas that can be interpretted strictly or less strictly is a given, but their are no portions that can be interpretted in or out of it. The courts are not empowered to enhance the powers of the federal government, when they do so, they themselves are acting in amanner inconsistant with the constitution.The SCOTUS 'interprets' the Constitution. That is its job. That also confirms that the Constitution is open to interpretation. Which it is.
That would be correct IF they determine that an unborn is at no point a person. I've never said otherwise.I said, if the SCOTUS strictly interprets the Constitution on abortion, given that the Constitution makes no mention of the unborn, given that the Constitution conveys no civil rights to non-persons,
then the correct decision under that constraint is to protect the right of abortion from conception to birth, on the grounds of a woman's rights.
They however have conveyed protections on the unborn once they are viable which is an implicit admission that they are persons at least at that point, otherwise the government has NO authority to infringe on the womans constitutional right. And if you're going to be consistant with the constitution it would mean they are entitled to its protections against being deprived of life without due process of law, and having equal protection under the law. Once again the constitution does NOT protect the future rights of potential life of notional persons. It protects actual persons, real life and existing rights. The SCOTUS is not empowered to create different classes of persons who do not get those protections, to do that you have to change the constitution.
The SCOTUS is not empowered to make up authorities that do not exist by interpretting them into existance from the ether of what they consider the "right" thing to do, or the best compromise. Either the government has the power, or it doesn't. If ROE is correct then the government has the power to infringe on ALL of your rights for any generic interest it can dream up that the courts will wave at.
Since you refused to even read the Court's rationale for how they decided Roe v Wade, that I directed you to, it's not easy to carry on a discussion about their rationale.
They did no such thing, they invented a power for the state to infringe on a persons right for a generic interest and surrounded that invention with a lot of logical falacies and circular arguments. I know they said the intent of the founders when they said "person" was that it would be a "walking around person" (itself a falacy as at worst they meant born) but since they chose not to define their intent, the inference is not that we must believe what they did given medical science of that day, but that we're free to define it as we wish in this day. However we do that though must be consistant as there are no notional persons with any rights in the document anywhere. Clearly they expected the definition to change, and by golly it did when we passed the 14th amendment ("person" as they were speaking about it referencing the 14th not being an invention of the founders in the first place).They did not 'dream up' a reason, in the sense that implies something cavalier and baseless. The Court drew on common law, on the cultural beliefs of the time of the writing of the Constitution, etc., etc., in developing a very thoughtful and actually quite brilliant decision.
the decission is far from brilliant, it is perhaps the most flawed deccission in the history of the courts as it clearly either robs a woman of a constitutional right in the interest of protecting a non-person with no rights to balance, or it allows a woman to kill without consequence a person the court says the state has an interest in protecting, depending on where you live and whether the woman wants the child.
Your strawman is rediculous as my argument is based on the ballancing of one persons rights against anothers and clearly states that courts are supposed to determine the more compelling right.By your logic the Court cannot compromise on any rights for any reason. By your logic yelling fire in a crowded theatre is constitutionally protected.
so which is it?
In granting the states the ability to infringe on a womans right to privacy did they rely on the states authority to protect another person and ballance those rights? or did they just invent some generic interest the state might have out of the ether? What interest can the state possibly have that would EVER allow them to infringe on your constitutional rights other than their interest in ballancing them against another person or persons? Thats the problem, they declare a states interest but do not define that interest in any way that could possibly constitutionally justify either taking a right, or taking a life, and there is no possible way to conclude that either one or the other isn't happenning.