Wacky Quacky
Gold Member
- May 16, 2011
- 2,103
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You don't have to go to the history books to see that the expansive view of the "general welfare" wording in Section 8 was long ago rejected.
If Congress were permitted to do anything it wanted, so long as it promoted the "general welfare,"
The Hamiltonian view of the GW clause - that accepted by the Courts, does NOT allow Congress to "do anything" it wants. It only allows it to SPEND MONEY on anything it wants. There is quite a difference between spending authority - the authority to BUY stuff - and regulatory authority - the authority to force people and businesses to follow a law or regulation.
According to the latest decision, RomneyCare IS completely Constitutional, numb nuts, the court did not throw out a SINGLE provision of it.then the Obamacare act would have been completely consitutional, with no real counter-arguments. There is no question whatsoever that a majority of the Congress (at the time the Act was passed) believed that Obamacare would promote the "general welfare" of the U.S.
The fact that the mandate could only be permitted under the power to "...lay and collect taxes..." should be proof enough that Congress is - at least theoretically - limited to its enumerated powers, and cannot do whatever it pleases under the "general welfare" clause.
No one has ever even argued that Congress can do "whatever it pleases" under the GW clause. Congress can tax people for not having health care - but they can't put people in prison for it. There's a big difference.
I've argued that they can whatever they want. All they have to do is come up with some bullshit argument of why it's in your best interest for them to do it, call it a tax, and it becomes legal under "general welfare".
And what happens when they don't pay that tax? They don't get a reward, I can tell you that much.