article 1 section 8

You don't have to go to the history books to see that the expansive view of the "general welfare" wording in Section 8 was long ago rejected.

If Congress were permitted to do anything it wanted, so long as it promoted the "general welfare,"

The Hamiltonian view of the GW clause - that accepted by the Courts, does NOT allow Congress to "do anything" it wants. It only allows it to SPEND MONEY on anything it wants. There is quite a difference between spending authority - the authority to BUY stuff - and regulatory authority - the authority to force people and businesses to follow a law or regulation.
then the Obamacare act would have been completely consitutional, with no real counter-arguments. There is no question whatsoever that a majority of the Congress (at the time the Act was passed) believed that Obamacare would promote the "general welfare" of the U.S.
According to the latest decision, RomneyCare IS completely Constitutional, numb nuts, the court did not throw out a SINGLE provision of it.
The fact that the mandate could only be permitted under the power to "...lay and collect taxes..." should be proof enough that Congress is - at least theoretically - limited to its enumerated powers, and cannot do whatever it pleases under the "general welfare" clause.

No one has ever even argued that Congress can do "whatever it pleases" under the GW clause.
Congress can tax people for not having health care - but they can't put people in prison for it. There's a big difference.

I've argued that they can whatever they want. All they have to do is come up with some bullshit argument of why it's in your best interest for them to do it, call it a tax, and it becomes legal under "general welfare".

And what happens when they don't pay that tax? They don't get a reward, I can tell you that much.
 
but the phrase is 'general welfare of the United States' - 'of' - general welfare of - of who/whom?

The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States

“United States” means the several States of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the commonwealths, territories, and possessions of the United States.

James Madision Fed. 41

"general welfare," as used in the Constitution, is defined by the enumerated powers listed directly afterward, nothing more and nothing less.

i think part of the problem is treating the federalist papers as if they are law. they aren't. our law is comprised of statute and our caselaw. and our caselaw, going back hundreds of years, does not limit what congress is able to do in accordance with the general welfare clause... EXCEPT as to those things which are the sole province of the states.

but the reality is that the supremacy clause, taken together with the general welfare clause and the way they've been construed by caselaw pretty much end any argument against governmental action

I'd say the recent rulings on Obamacare pretty much counter that argument.

Caselaw worked against FDR with his New Deal Program. It was during this time that it became clear that low life bastard had no respect for the separation of powers.

His following appointments were scumbag asskissers. Who did just what you guys hate so much in order to get FDR's Screw Deal on track...the reversed earlier, established decisions.

The decision by Roberts has two seperate dissents (one was going to be a dissent). One says the commerce clause allows it, the other does not. Roberts, in the end, said you can't (you see the federal government can't....as in it would not be grounds for governmental action...whatever the hell that means) use that as a basis.

That he rewrote the statute to fit his ruling is another stain on the court....but that is for a different day.
 
This is a question for the strict constitutionalists who believe we take the constitution literally, exactly as written.

Section 8 of Article 1 in known as the "enumerated powers" section. Here is where the various powers granted the congress are spelled out. The first article in that section is quoted, verbatim, below.

Section 8

1: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;

Taking that literally, strictly as written, how does that limit the power of congress to legislate on any social program it chooses so long as it provides for the "general welfare"?

It is quite simple. The founders were educated and very literate. How can you interpret that any other way? Remember though, you are not supposed to interpret, you are to take it literally.

Congress possesses both enumerated and implied powers stemming from the Necessary and Proper Clause. See: McCulloch v. Maryland (1819).

The powers granted to the national government in the Constitution are called the enumerated powers. From early on, it was understood that not every detail of the needed powers of the national government could be listed. The Supreme Court and others understood the enumerated powers to be general grants of authority which included various implied powers. Taken together, the enumerated and implied powers constitute, in theory, all the powers of the national government.

US v Morrison (2000)

Indeed, every perception of the Constitution is an interpretation, including ‘literalism,’ ‘strict constructionism,’ and ‘originalism.’
 
This is a question for the strict constitutionalists who believe we take the constitution literally, exactly as written.

Section 8 of Article 1 in known as the "enumerated powers" section. Here is where the various powers granted the congress are spelled out. The first article in that section is quoted, verbatim, below.

Section 8

1: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States[/B]; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;

Taking that literally, strictly as written, how does that limit the power of congress to legislate on any social program it chooses so long as it provides for the "general welfare"?

It is quite simple. The founders were educated and very literate. How can you interpret that any other way? Remember though, you are not supposed to interpret, you are to take it literally.


without interpeting, i think the entire phrase has to be taken in whole, not picking two words. With no interpetation, it appears the document intended that the general welfare of the entire nation is the meaning, not of individual citizens.


That being said, isn't the general welfare of individual citizens a part of the general welfare of the united states? I will explain why.

1. disease control: We recognize the value of things like the CDC and medical care in preventing epidemics and increasing the safety of all people in regards to health. By providing medicine for all we lower the spread of disease, and increase the general welfare of the country. Even things like food support keep up the health of the poor and overcrowded places of the US where disease would run rampant with malnutrition being present because those people cannot eat.

2. control of civil unrest: One of the easiest ways to control civil unrest is to fight poverty. As we look through history civil unrest is often contributed to by hunger, lack of shelter, and even social bias created by discriminatory practices. By feeding the poor through welfare programs, and offering things like housing and utility support through the same programs we do pacify a large amount of social unrest. We would be in full scale riots for food right now if it was not for the EBT program, social security payments, and unemployment benefits.

3. increase of commerce: Commerce keeps people employed, pays taxes, and generally helps out america. Tricle down economics fail because there is no reason for the rich to spend the money we give them. trickly up economics does wor because the poor have to spend their money on food and survival. Right now the food assistance programs keep food retail, distribution, and farmers going. Without it we would lose more employment because simply there are millions of people who spend money on food because of those programs. As we see, again the food assistance program of the US is quite vital to the present welfare of the country as per your definition.

So here we have three things which easily point to the general welfare of our country being directly effected by modern welfare programs. Maybe there is a reason they share the same name?
 
If the FF's could see how this GW clause is used today I firmly believe they would turn over in their graves.
If they could see, they would not be in their graves.

see?

These are the same guys that threw a hissy fit when one of them wanted to give the French immigrants 10 grand to help them settle in the USA. This was after the French helped them achiev independence.

Funny how until FDR made a mockery of the Constitution no one even had a glimmer about the taxdollars of this country being handed out to the poor and downtrodden.

Promoting the GW is a long way from Providing the GW.

And what happened to the part of the constitution that says everyone should be treated the same??

Kinda leaves those providing the largesse out in the cold wouldn't you say?? Those paying Fed taxes are now obliged to provide for every freeloader in the US. Don't think thats what the GW clause was put in there for.

your idiocy knows no bounds

LOL My idiocy huh??

I don't agree with you so I'm an idiot?

Aww well. Whatever floats your boat there idiot.
 
Congress possesses both enumerated and implied powers stemming from the Necessary and Proper Clause. See: McCulloch v. Maryland (1819).

The powers granted to the national government in the Constitution are called the enumerated powers. From early on, it was understood that not every detail of the needed powers of the national government could be listed. The Supreme Court and others understood the enumerated powers to be general grants of authority which included various implied powers. Taken together, the enumerated and implied powers constitute, in theory, all the powers of the national government.

US v Morrison (2000)

Indeed, every perception of the Constitution is an interpretation, including ‘literalism,’ ‘strict constructionism,’ and ‘originalism.’

Only as they apply to the specfic duities assigned to the federal government.
 
You don't have to go to the history books to see that the expansive view of the "general welfare" wording in Section 8 was long ago rejected.

If Congress were permitted to do anything it wanted, so long as it promoted the "general welfare,"

The Hamiltonian view of the GW clause - that accepted by the Courts, does NOT allow Congress to "do anything" it wants. It only allows it to SPEND MONEY on anything it wants. There is quite a difference between spending authority - the authority to BUY stuff - and regulatory authority - the authority to force people and businesses to follow a law or regulation.

According to the latest decision, RomneyCare IS completely Constitutional, numb nuts, the court did not throw out a SINGLE provision of it.
The fact that the mandate could only be permitted under the power to "...lay and collect taxes..." should be proof enough that Congress is - at least theoretically - limited to its enumerated powers, and cannot do whatever it pleases under the "general welfare" clause.

No one has ever even argued that Congress can do "whatever it pleases" under the GW clause.
Congress can tax people for not having health care - but they can't put people in prison for it. There's a big difference.

I've argued that they can whatever they want.

You're argument is retarded and you're the only one making it.

All they have to do is come up with some bullshit argument of why it's in your best interest for them to do it, call it a tax, and it becomes legal under "general welfare".
Sorry, that's not how it works.
And what happens when they don't pay that tax?
In the case of the health care mandate - NO CRIMINAL PENALTIES - per Chapter 48 of the law itself. The IRS can garnish your wages or seize your financial assets to get the tax paid - but you cannot be charged with a criminal offense.
 
"With respect to the two words ‘general welfare,' I have always regarded them as qualified by the detail of powers connected with them. To take them in a literal and unlimited sense would be a metamorphosis of the Constitution into a character which there is a host of proofs was not contemplated by its creators." – James Madison in letter to James Robertson

"[Congressional jurisdiction of power] is limited to certain enumerated objects, which concern all the members of the republic, but which are not to be attained by the separate provisions of any." - James Madison, Federalist 14

"The powers delegated by the proposed Constitution to the federal government are few and defined . . . to be exercised principally on external objects, as war, peace, negotiation, and foreign commerce." - James Madison, Federalist 45

"If Congress can do whatever in their discretion can be done by money, and will promote the General Welfare, the Government is no longer a limited one, possessing enumerated powers, but an indefinite one, subject to particular exceptions." - James Madison, 1792

“The Constitution allows only the means which are ‘necessary,’ not those which are merely ‘convenient,’ for effecting the enumerated powers. If such a latitude of construction be allowed to this phrase as to give any non-enumerated power, it will go to every one, for there is not one which ingenuity may not torture into a convenience in some instance or other, to some one of so long a list of enumerated powers. It would swallow up all the delegated powers, and reduce the whole to one power, as before observed" - Thomas Jefferson, 1791

"Congress has not unlimited powers to provide for the general welfare, but only those specifically enumerated." - Thomas Jefferson, 1798

There you have it. James Madison, the Constitution’s author and Thomas Jefferson the author of the Declaration of Independence, specifically say that Congressional powers are to be limited and defined. This differs from most modern interpretations including your own!

Jefferson and Madison were not our only Founders and they were strict constitutionalists who feared the potential strength of any government. However another founder, Alexander Hamilton, saw it in a little differently.

"This specification of particulars [the 18 enumerated powers of Article I, Section 8] evidently excludes all pretension to a general legislative authority, because an affirmative grant of special powers would be absurd as well as useless if a general authority was intended." - Alexander Hamilton, Federalist 83

Hamilton uncategorically states that all congressional powers are enumerated and that the very existence of these enumerations alone makes any belief that Congress has full and general legislative power to act as it desires nonsensical. If such broad congressional power had been the original intent, the constitutionally specified powers would have been worthless. In other words, why even enumerate any powers at all if the General Welfare clause could trump them?

"No legislative act … contrary to the Constitution can be valid. To deny this would be to affirm that the deputy is greater than his principal; that the servant is above his master; that the representatives of the people are superior to the people themselves; that men acting by virtue of powers may do not only what their powers do not authorize, but what they forbid." - Alexander Hamilton, Federalist 78

In short, Hamilton tells us that since the powers of Congress are enumerated and limit Congress to those powers, any assumed authority outside those specified that don’t have a direct relation to those explicit powers must be contrary to the Constitution and therefore nconstitutional.

So, to use the founder's own opinions to answer your original question, the congress does not have the power to tax and spend for any social program they see fit according to the founders and the original intent of the constitution.

Also look into what the rest of section 8 goes on to say, it is obvious that those are the only areas which the language in question refers to. The specific areas this power was enumerated to and not whatever a politican wants.

your opinions aside, one can take dueling quotes from Madison himself. there exists dueling positions with Madison and Hamilton disagreeing on what the correct interpretation of specific parts of the Constitution mean. They disagree with each other over what was intended.

what is your point?

See the parts in bold? Those were my points backed up by the words of those involved in crafting the constitution.

I'm not sure why you keep asking me questions I already answered. Are you hoping I will trip up and change my opinion mid discussion?

Also please back up your "dueling quotes" on Article 1, section 8 claim with evidence. Thanks.
 
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“If Congress can apply money indefinitely to the general welfare, and are the sole and supreme judges of the general welfare, they may take the care of religion into their own hands; they may take into their own hands the education of children, establishing in like manner schools throughout the Union; they may undertake the regulation of all roads, other than post roads. In short, everything from the highest object of state legislation, down to the most minute object of policy, would be thrown under the power of Congress; for every object I have mentioned would admit the application of money, and might be called, if Congress pleased, provisions for the general welfare.” James Madison

The terms "general Welfare" were doubtless intended to signify more than was expressed or imported in those which Preceded; otherwise numerous exigencies incident to the affairs of a Nation would have been left without a provision. The phrase is as comprehensive as any that could have been used; because it was not fit that the constitutional authority of the Union, to appropriate its revenues shou'd have been restricted within narrower limits than the "General Welfare" and because this necessarily embraces a vast variety of particulars, which are susceptible neither of specification nor of definition.
Hamilton

United States v. Butler

The clause confers a power separate and distinct from those later enumerated [,] is not restricted in meaning by the grant of them, and Congress consequently has a substantive power to tax and to appropriate, limited only by the requirement that it shall be exercised to provide for the general welfare of the United States. … It results that the power of Congress to authorize expenditure of public moneys for public purposes is not limited by the direct grants of legislative power found in the Constitution.

The last thing and associated decisions made by courts during the FDR era, reversed this nations view of a limited meaning of "general welfare" as well as the power of the Federal Govt. to tax and spend. In fact it appears that this issue has been one debated since it was first put in the constitution and has been since that time. In order to revert back to the Madison view of the constitution it would take a court willing to do so or people willing to amend it which of course we can always do as a people.
 
This is a question for the strict constitutionalists who believe we take the constitution literally, exactly as written.

Section 8 of Article 1 in known as the "enumerated powers" section. Here is where the various powers granted the congress are spelled out. The first article in that section is quoted, verbatim, below.

Section 8

1: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;

Taking that literally, strictly as written, how does that limit the power of congress to legislate on any social program it chooses so long as it provides for the "general welfare"?

It is quite simple. The founders were educated and very literate. How can you interpret that any other way? Remember though, you are not supposed to interpret, you are to take it literally.
General Welfare does not mean take from the rich and give to the poor.
 
The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States

“United States” means the several States of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the commonwealths, territories, and possessions of the United States.

James Madision Fed. 41

"general welfare," as used in the Constitution, is defined by the enumerated powers listed directly afterward, nothing more and nothing less.

i think part of the problem is treating the federalist papers as if they are law. they aren't. our law is comprised of statute and our caselaw. and our caselaw, going back hundreds of years, does not limit what congress is able to do in accordance with the general welfare clause... EXCEPT as to those things which are the sole province of the states.

but the reality is that the supremacy clause, taken together with the general welfare clause and the way they've been construed by caselaw pretty much end any argument against governmental action

I'd say the recent rulings on Obamacare pretty much counter that argument.

Caselaw worked against FDR with his New Deal Program. It was during this time that it became clear that low life bastard had no respect for the separation of powers.

His following appointments were scumbag asskissers. Who did just what you guys hate so much in order to get FDR's Screw Deal on track...the reversed earlier, established decisions.

The decision by Roberts has two seperate dissents (one was going to be a dissent). One says the commerce clause allows it, the other does not. Roberts, in the end, said you can't (you see the federal government can't....as in it would not be grounds for governmental action...whatever the hell that means) use that as a basis.

That he rewrote the statute to fit his ruling is another stain on the court....but that is for a different day.



There actually weren't any FDR appointees on the SCOTUS at the time of U.S. v Butler.
 
This is a question for the strict constitutionalists who believe we take the constitution literally, exactly as written.

Section 8 of Article 1 in known as the "enumerated powers" section. Here is where the various powers granted the congress are spelled out. The first article in that section is quoted, verbatim, below.

Section 8

1: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;

Taking that literally, strictly as written, how does that limit the power of congress to legislate on any social program it chooses so long as it provides for the "general welfare"?

It is quite simple. The founders were educated and very literate. How can you interpret that any other way? Remember though, you are not supposed to interpret, you are to take it literally.
General Welfare does not mean take from the rich and give to the poor.

It means whatever Congress reasonably defines it as.
 
This is a question for the strict constitutionalists who believe we take the constitution literally, exactly as written.

Section 8 of Article 1 in known as the "enumerated powers" section. Here is where the various powers granted the congress are spelled out. The first article in that section is quoted, verbatim, below.

Section 8

1: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;

Taking that literally, strictly as written, how does that limit the power of congress to legislate on any social program it chooses so long as it provides for the "general welfare"?

It is quite simple. The founders were educated and very literate. How can you interpret that any other way? Remember though, you are not supposed to interpret, you are to take it literally.
General Welfare does not mean take from the rich and give to the poor.

It means whatever Congress reasonably defines it as.

No.. it does not.. or it would have been specifically written that way... The constitution strictly defines government scope and specifically lays out the powers.. it does not and was not intended to leave it wide open to do whatever the fuck it wants
 
General Welfare does not mean take from the rich and give to the poor.

It means whatever Congress reasonably defines it as.

No.. it does not.. or it would have been specifically written that way... The constitution strictly defines government scope and specifically lays out the powers.. it does not and was not intended to leave it wide open to do whatever the fuck it wants
No one ever said its "wide open to do whatever the fuck it wants". Article I Section 8 Clause 1 only allows Congress to tax, spend, and borrow for the general welfare.
 
It means whatever Congress reasonably defines it as.

No.. it does not.. or it would have been specifically written that way... The constitution strictly defines government scope and specifically lays out the powers.. it does not and was not intended to leave it wide open to do whatever the fuck it wants
No one ever said its "wide open to do whatever the fuck it wants". Article I Section 8 Clause 1 only allows Congress to tax, spend, and borrow for the general welfare.

And you YET AGAIN do not include the whole phrase..

OF THE UNITED STATES.. you see, CONTEXT means everything... and as WRITTEN, it means for the UNION.... not for individuals....

And you said "whatever Congress reasonably defines it as".. this is NOT a power granted to the legislature by the constitution AT ALL

Words were chosen for reason, winger... limits were put in place for a reason.. and the 10th amendment was put in place for a reason.. if the power is not SPECIFICALLY granted, the federal government does not have it... it is reserved for the states and the people... congress does not have to power to hand out for individual personal needs, and it does not have the power to define it in whatever fashion they want to make article 1 section 8 a 'catch all clause' that makes the rest of the constitution powerless
 
This is a question for the strict constitutionalists who believe we take the constitution literally, exactly as written.

Section 8 of Article 1 in known as the "enumerated powers" section. Here is where the various powers granted the congress are spelled out. The first article in that section is quoted, verbatim, below.

Section 8

1: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;

Taking that literally, strictly as written, how does that limit the power of congress to legislate on any social program it chooses so long as it provides for the "general welfare"?

It is quite simple. The founders were educated and very literate. How can you interpret that any other way? Remember though, you are not supposed to interpret, you are to take it literally.
General Welfare does not mean take from the rich and give to the poor.

It means whatever Congress reasonably defines it as.

Actually it means the areas described within Article 1, Section 8 specifically and nothing else.
 

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