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Originally posted by Avatar4321
Again what part dont you understand. Treaties are made and broken according to the will of the nation involved. Hence making International law as a criminal law virtually irrelevant. There is no body to enforce it. Any nation bound by it, is bound volentarily and essentially can ignore it whenever if feels like it. Again hence the problem with international law.
Ive simply got to be amazed at someone trying to argue with someone who has been studying international law and international community for the last few years and is working on a law degree with an emphasis in international law and simply ignores them. Amazing.
Keep studying. You are partly right. A treaty does have the same status as any other federal law in the United States, save the Constitution, which clearly has primacy. However, even though a treaty may not be a criminal law that can be enforced by an outside tribunal, it still is a law for the purposes of the United States, and is to be followed inside the United States (its violations generally dealt with by U.S. courts unless the treaty itself confers jurisdiction eslewhere (i.e., WTO)). This does not however make it a criminal law. Yes, the president has the power to terminate a treaty without the approval of Congress, but no one has the authority to break a treaty. If one does so, one is technically violating the law of the U.S. (although there does have to be the political will to prosecute (not necessarily criminally) the case).
As for whether the President is violating U.S. law by violating the treaty, I think this is probably a very complicated question to which I don't have the foggiest of an answer. We clearly haven't terminated the treaty (and are probably violating it). However, there are surely the war powers doctrine, implicit rejection of section 45.1, sep. of powers arguments, etc. that would have to be considered.