P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
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You are an bigotted idiot and a liar, Jews maintained a presence throughout the mellenia, and especially during Ottoman Empire starting in the 1200's were migrating back to their ancient religious, ancestral, and cultural homeland, which is why Jerusalem had a Jewish majority in the 1800's.Jews were never referred to as Palestinians. Palestine was exclusively a Christian land from 380 AD until the Muslim conquest. Chronolgy is a bitch.
Of course Jews in Europe were referred to as 'Palestinians among us',
2 centuries before Arabs decided to use that name. I've already provided the evidence.
If what You say about Jews in Palestine was true then Jews would lack many great works like the Jerusalem Talmud (aka 'Palestinian Talmud'), that are in the heart of their tradition.
But somehow amazingly there were significant Jewish schools that compiled huge volumes of works during the time You were talking about.
Jews were referred to as 'Palestinians' in literature and by law (something I've learned from Tinmore).
Jewish colonists to Palestine during the mandate were given Palestinian citizenship by the British. You show one problematic case with Kant.
Only Christians were permitted to reside in Palestine after Christianity became the state religion of Rome in 380 AD. So, a Palestinian Jew would be a contradiction in terms. Those of other religions Pagans, Samaritans, Zorastrians and Jews living in Palestine converted to Christianity to be able to reside in Palestine.
But maybe if you repeat this debunked garbage propaganda another 100,000 times it might one day become true, Adolf.
That is true but I can't find anything that gives Jews the exclusive rights to the territory.Jews maintained a presence throughout the mellenia,