frigidweirdo
Diamond Member
- Mar 7, 2014
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Yes or no?
Please show where that is found.
The 9th amendment.
The 9th amendment does not call out a right to privacy.
It says all other "rights" belong to the people.
Somebody has to show that there is such a thing as a right to privacy (and you can spare me Stephen Douglas).
The constitution establishes limitations upon the government and therefore the burden is on them to show an absence of such right.
And was the right first acknowledged ? In the 1920's.
Given that rights are general protections afforded Americans....which were not afforded for 150 years and then only on a limited basis.....it's hard to take the argument it is right....seriously.
Only Americans?
1st Amendment: "Congress shall make no law...." that means Congress can't do anything to anyone. American or otherwise.
2nd Amendment: "the right of the people" The people is Americans.
3rd Amendment: "No Soldier shall, " This is no soldier under Federal control, and this implies ALL houses in whatever country.
4th Amendment: "The right of the people"
5th Amendment: "No person " All people.
6th Amendment: "In all criminal prosecutions," All people
7th Amendment: "In suits at common law," All people.
8th Amendment: "Excessive bail shall not be required, " All people.
So only two amendments apply onto the Americans.