candycorn
Diamond Member
Aside from the fact Abbott's proclamation laid out all the necessary statutes to ensure it's legality, his actions could have changed the election results. Whereas the violations in question in the Texas lawsuit could. Totally different aspects of election law that simply do not compare. This is nothing but a red herring.So did Texas. The Texas legislature never voted to extend the voting period.Sorry RETARD but those 4 states VIOLATED the law. You remember that right? The Constitution is clear as a bell. And if they violated the voting law they violated the rights of ALL the States.The FUCK they do. Texas governs Texas ---- not North Cackalackee. PERIOD.In this case since the LEGISLATURE of the 4 states in question did NOT change their laws Texas does have a say as do the Courts.AS directed BY the State Legislature. As the Constitution SPECIFICALLY says.The US Constitution applies to HOW presidential elections are decided READ it some time. It specifically gives the authority to STATE legislatures NOT Governors or committees.Whose Constitution? Each state has its own and the SC would probably not want to interfere.The sued states did not LEGALLY NOR CONSTITUTIONALLY change their system, IT requires an act of the Legislature in a State to change the process. By the Constitution.,
Bullshit. The COTUS doesn't mention popular Presidential elections AT ALL. States were choosing EC Electors by non-popular vote methods as late as 1860.
--- which has nothing to do with running elections. Once AGAIN the Constitution requires no elections.
Now then. Whatever the state legislature of, say, Pennsylvania decides, Texas has NO SAY IN IT.
You can't have it both ways.
The fact remains that the legislative process was ignored by Texas when it illegally changed it's voting laws. Thus making the already laughable lawsuit it filed hypocritical as well as crazy.