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No it does not. If you read the 2a you will see not only were they not granted that right government is not granted that right. There is no provision granting government the right to have or posses a weapon.I have seen this argument put forth a few times in the last month or so and i am just wondering where this argument comes from.
Can anyone elaborate?
I have seen this argument put forth a few times in the last month or so and i am just wondering where this argument comes from.
Can anyone elaborate?
The 2nd Amendment was not a grant of rights, nor did it require militia organization. All it did was to keep the power to pass laws regarding arms away from Congress and reserve that power to the States.I have seen this argument put forth a few times in the last month or so and i am just wondering where this argument comes from.
Can anyone elaborate?
The 2nd Amendment was not a grant of rights, nor did it require militia organization. All it did was to keep the power to pass laws regarding arms away from Congress and reserve that power to the States.I have seen this argument put forth a few times in the last month or so and i am just wondering where this argument comes from.
Can anyone elaborate?
The 2nd Amendment limited federal authority. Nothing more.
Now, however, it is all fucked up. The necessary but flawed nature of the 14th Amendment, the unchecked actions of Congress in the 1930s and beyond, and decades of appointments of undisciplined Supreme Court justices or justices openly hostile to the plain language of the constitution, all have worked to muddy the waters to the point where the power is unclear.
Scalia, in my opinion, fucked up in Heller. He was afraid to do the right thing and declare all fed gun laws uncostitutional, which would have made clear the power reserved by states, but the potential political and public unrest caused by such a decision pressured him to work a draconian meld of state and federal power without adressing the interaction of the 2nd Amendment with privileges and immunities clause of the 14th Amendment.
In sum, it is all fucked up, and those in power do not give a rat fuck. The ultimate goal is to rid us of our natural, preexisting right. That is the only logical conclusion. Those in power want us helpless and powerless, so they don't give a shit.
No. That is unconstitutional, through the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment.So that mean Arizona has the constitutional authority to ban words or relig
That was my thinking. I understand the Constitution is a limit on the fed gov but i thought certain rights mentioned were inalienableI would say that from everything I've ever learned the Bill of Rights can not be undermined by any state or local government and it would take a new amendment to alter or eliminate another amendment.
Someone smarter than me can probably come up with something more concrete.
Sorry. I am being unclear. Multitasking.I just dont understand that.
IMO, it shouldnt have to be extended... The Constitution is quite clear.Sorry. I am being unclear. Multitasking.I just dont understand that.
The 14th Amendment fucked everything up (for better or worse).
States have their own constitutions which guarantee certain inalienable rights to their citizens, just as the Constitution does. The 14th Amendment requires this:
"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."
Shouldn't the States be forced to give all citizens liberty (right to bear arms) or forced to make no law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities?
It has never been clearly extended to the right to bear arms, to my knowledge.
See how fucked up it has become? What can states do? No SCOTUS holding has made it clear.
But, the 14th Amendment is so damn clumsy that it is still unclear how it affects State power.Simply put, the supremacy clause obligates the states to the Constitution. Therefore, the states are subject to the same limitations placed upon the federal government.
"Congress shall make no law ..."
Make no mistake. If the commies had no other avenue to fuck over our rights, they would twist the commerce clause to their will.When i started this thread, i assumed it was because of the commerce clause.. Which is easily debunked IMO
Like banning flowers called pot.Make no mistake. If the commies had no other avenue to fuck over our rights, they would twist the commerce clause to their will.When i started this thread, i assumed it was because of the commerce clause.. Which is easily debunked IMO