Quantum Windbag
Gold Member
- May 9, 2010
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You're a moron. Violating the Supremacy Clause is what makes a state law unconstitutional.
Ware v Hylton.
Oh and btw, that's 1796. Proving also that judicial review by the Supreme Court predated Marbury for all you muppets claiming otherwise.
Let me get this straight, a decision that held that a law made pursuant to a treaty ratified by Congress proved that state laws that violate the constitution are unconstitutional?
Gotta love that logic. Why don't you show me exactly where it says that in the opinion.
Ware v. Hylton - 3 U.S. 199 (1796) :: Justia US Supreme Court Center
You obviously don't know what the point of the conversation was, because now you're talking in circles.
Let's start over:
Is the Supremacy Clause meant to be enforceable?
If your answer is 'no', then why not, and, why then is it there if it's not enforceable?
If your answer is 'yes', then what is supposed to be the mechanism for enforcement?
Tell you what, when you decide to stop arguing with someone else, and address the deficiencies in your education, get back to me. Alternatively, feel free to show me where I said what you think I said. That won't be possible, but looking for a non existent post might teach you not to argue with people who didn't say what you made up.