Skylar
Diamond Member
- Jul 5, 2014
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I didn't say collecting money for issuing marriage licenses was a Constitutional reason to or not to issue them at all. I was just wondering if states do not HAVE to, why is a tax / fee charged for issuing them?And the constitutional basis for overturning bans on same sex marriage had nothing to do with financial regulation. Making your argument a pointless strawman.
Read Obergefell. They lay out their constitutional basis. And its nothing you've cited.
My point was, this fee is basically associated with the act of getting government benefits associated with being registered as a couple, not with 'getting married'. I imagine a couple can be married, assuming would perform the ceremony, without a marriage license if they only cared about the act and God's blessing on the union, which marriage is, and if they do not care about all the perks and 'bennies' provided by the government that comes along with getting a license and being 'officially registered and licensed' as a couple.
Americans were getting married LONG before the State sought to license such. That's very true.
But licensing came about as a means to prohibit polygamy and other deviancies from corrupting marriage.
Says who?
Speaking of a long history, you have a long history of just making shit up. Show us where state recognized marriage was created to 'prevent the corruption of marriage'.
The human race is simply now a mirror image of itself, with the Left using the law to corrupt... instead of using the law to do what it is designed for.
The human race is just fine. And the recognition of rights isn't 'corruption'. Its equal protection.