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Myths and facts about Jerusalem and Temple Mount

"PALESTINE" as written----IS a word invented by the
english.

Did Herodotus write in English? How about the Romans?

Er, Herodotus was from Greece. The Romans were from Italy.

Actually the Romans were NOT from Italy - there was no Italy. They were from Rome.

Eiher way - neither wrote in English, did they genius?


The funny thing is, I absolutely believe Israel has as much right to exist as any other country - and more than many.

But the case you guys present is so weak, so based on racial hatred and religious dogma that I wish you'd chosen another country to undermine!
 
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Maryland -

Yes, I made a typo.

At this point you seem to have conceded the debate and are now limiting yourself to spamming and name-calling - is that correct?

Shall I list comment #'s I am still waiting for an adult response to?

Please respond to points raised in #799, 800, 801 and 804.
 
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Maryland -

Yes, I made a typo.

At this point you seem to have conceded the debate and are now limiting yourself to spamming and name-calling - is that correct?

Shall I list comment #'s I am still waiting for an adult response to?

Please respond to points raised in #799, 800, 801 and 804.

Take the rest of the day to learn the distinction between "Arabs" and their language "Arabic" :lol:
 
Herodotus was a greek---he wrote in greek-----
WHICH IS GREEK TO ME-----something
like "palestina"----for some not fully defined
area over there----related to peoples with
whom the greeks mingled---in syria who
actually WERE GREEKS or greek like
phonecians------- and
in and around ASHKELON who were
aegeans-----generally crete people
even cretins know that

Herodotus iived in the general times
of the babylonian captivity during
which time Israel/Judea was in dis-
array since ALL of its leaders and
prominent people had been deported
FROM HIS VANTAGE POINT---he could
have considered ISRAEL/JUDEA----an
extinct culture -----is that not interesting??

More interesting ---at about the same
time----a synagogue was built in TUNISIA
which legend has it was built using some
of the stuff salvaged from the TEMPLE
IN JERUSALEM (ie temple #1) now just
to cheer sherri-----that temple was destroyed
by ISA RESPECTERS-----during the
"ISA RESPECTING SPRING" in tunisia
along with ancient manuscripts. You isa
respecters really ENJOY DESTROYING
HISTORY
 
Rosie -

I also assume Herodotus wrote in Greek - and the Romans in Roman Latin - meaning that the word "Palestine" is in no way English.

My guess is that it is a bastardisation of Philistine and thus not a particularly accurate name for the region as far east as Jericho upon which few Philistines could ever have settled, though perhaps for local political reasons I can also understand they may not have wished to use simply Judea & Samaria. The world may be a different place today had they done so....or perhaps not.

At some point - inevitably - the stream of Jewish (and Christian) refugees and immigrants into lightly populated land would have aroused local opposition, regardless of the names used to describe them.
 
Saigon---'palestine' is a word that exists in
the ENGLISH LEXICON---it is derived from
a greek word-----the english invented the
english equvalent of a greek word---BETTER??
The word PALESTINA was added to the latin
lexicon by the romans----it referred to the lands
that had been Israel/Judea and included
ASHKELON ----and---some other stuff which
was taken over by the HOLY ROMAN EMPIRE
and christianized
 
Saigon---'palestine' is a word that exists in
the ENGLISH LEXICON---it is derived from
a greek word-----the english invented the
english equvalent of a greek word---BETTER??

Well, yes, and the Finnish word is derived from the English, which is derived from the Ancient Latin, and so forth and so forth.

Is there a point in there somewhere?

The British Anglicized the Roman Latin "palaestina" into palestine.

So what?

Do you ever actually try to make a point - or just post gibberish and non sequitors?
 
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Rosie -

I also assume Herodotus wrote in Greek - and the Romans in Roman Latin - meaning that the word "Palestine" is in no way English.

Incorrect, again.

"Palestine" is an English word. The British Anglicized the Roman Latin "palaestina" into palestine.

Palestine is derived from the Hebrew "Peleshet" appearing in the Hebrew Bible which referred to a small area around Gaza. English versions of the Bible translate Peleshet as Philistia referring to the Philistines.

Your history lesson for the day
 
lets play scrabble

It would certainly be a step up from the level of debate here the past couple of weeks!

I am ever hopeful that at some point we might actually debate topics with a certain level of both relevence and interest, but it's rare 90% of the posting isn't just chest-beating, racism and inexplicable displays of the blatantly obvious.

Maryland -

Still waiting or you to address points 799, 800, 801 and 804. Stop dodging.
 
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Maryland -

If you don't have the balls or knowledge to actually discuss the topic here - perhaps starting posting on a gardening forum?
 
Maryland -

I'll try again. These are the comments you seem to be dodging:

Palestine was patently NOT the "European" name for Israel, because Israel appeared on no maps at the time. There was no state of Israel, and no people in the area who called themselves Israelis. Both Herodotus and the Romans refer to the land as Palestine, or a derivation thereof.

Also, there was no single amorphous "Europe" at the time of the Roman invasion, nor since, as it happens.

Remember that we confirmed earlier that the word 'Palestine' appeared on maps for some 600 years - a period of time that hardly fits your decription of "brief", I would have thought.

If you actually understood the lack of a clear genetic link between modern Palestinians and ancient Philistines, from which the term Palestine is derived, you wouldn't find the need to go into hyper-denial mode.

Lastly, the idea that all of these people - for 600 years - were 'wrong' about the name is as stupid a claim as this board will ever see. Countries change names, century after century. Peoples come and go. That is the nature of history.

The fact Israel did not exist as a country until 1948 in no way weakens or lessens its claim to statehood today. Israel is a legitimate country - despite you re-writing its history.

Do you accept that the word 'Palestine' did appear on maps for 600 years?

Plus -

What does this statement mean?

who are just Arabs,
 
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Maryland -

I'll try again. These are the comments you seem to be dodging:

Palestine was patently NOT the "European" name for Israel, because Israel appeared on no maps at the time.

Much better than a silly map...

Louve, Paris: The Mesha Stele: Israel [ca. 830 BCE]
The stele of King Mesha constitutes one of the most important direct accounts of the history of the world that is related in the Bible. The inscription pays tribute to the sovereign, celebrating his great building works and victories over the kingdom of Israel during the reign of Ahab, son of Omri. The mention of "Israel" is its earliest known written occurence.
The Mesha Stele | Louvre Museum | Paris



Mesha Stele Inscription...
I am Mesha, son of Chemosh, the king of Moab. My father reigned over Moab for thirty years, and I reigned after my father. And I made this high-place for Chemosh [national god] in Qarcho.because he has delivered me from all kings, and because he has made me triumph over all my adversaries.

As for Omri, King of Israel, he humbled Moab for many years, for Chermosh was angry at his land. In my time he spoke, but I have triumphed over him and over his house, while Israel hath perished for ever!


Harvard University Semitic Museum: The Mesha Stele--Israel
Mesha ruled Moab, east of the Dead Sea, during the ninth century BCE. Mesha recounts his principal achievements as king. The most important of these was his recovery from Israel of Moabite lands north of the Arnon River.

There is also a measure of bombast: Mesha proclaims that "Israel perished utterly forever," which certainly was not the case, though in one town alone he says he slaughtered seven thousand Israelite "men, boys, women, girls and concubines" in devotion to Ashtar-Chemosh.

Omri, king of Israel, who ruled a generation before Mesha, is mentioned several times. The earliest known reference to Yahweh [Hebrew God] in a Semitic inscription is also to be found here. At the extant bottom of the stela, Mesha describes an encounter with the House of David, that is, Judah. Although the passage is badly broken, it is clear that Mesha takes credit for a victory over the House of David in the territory south of the Arnon. The words representing king of Israel, Yahweh and House of [Da]vid are highlighted at the top, middle and bottom of the stela respectively.

Mesha of Moab § Semitic Museum
 
Rosie -

I also assume Herodotus wrote in Greek - and the Romans in Roman Latin - meaning that the word "Palestine" is in no way English.

Incorrect, again.

"Palestine" is an English word. The British Anglicized the Roman Latin "palaestina" into palestine.

Palestine is derived from the Hebrew "Peleshet" appearing in the Hebrew Bible which referred to a small area around Gaza. English versions of the Bible translate Peleshet as Philistia referring to the Philistines.

Your history lesson for the day
Yup, and that's exactly what I've been saying to this ignorant nincompoop, unfortunately it doesn't go his thick skull. You will learn learn very quickly that Saigooon's ignorance is only surpassed by his arrogance. He keeps embarrassing himself and then comes back only to embarass himself even more.
 

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