Wrong question.Or, unless the business was just hunting for an excuse to cut payroll without taking its responsibility for unemployment compensation, which would be my guess.
An "excuse" huh? Testing is the legitimate of the business, what the reason. Attempting to downplay it as if they ought not to be testing only demonstrates a bias in favor of those who do drugs. Why, I wonder?
Correct question: why do you and most others on the right seek to compel conformity by increasing the size and authority of government at the expense of individual liberty – if conservatives aren’t violating the 4th Amendment rights of public assistance applicants, they’re violating the equal protection rights of gay Americans, or the voting rights of African-Americans, or the privacy rights of women, or the due process rights of immigrants.
In these and other examples we see conservatives advocating for more government, more intrusive government, more government interfering in citizens’ personal lives.
The only logical inference is that this need by most on the right to compel conformity is consistent with the authoritarian nature of conservatism, and an unwarranted fear of change, diversity, and dissent, conjoined with errant conservative dogma and its wrongheaded notion that drug testing public assistance applicants will act as a ‘deterrent’ to them doing so, when in fact those who apply have a real need for assistance, will receive benefits for only a very short time, never to return.
Of course most on the right don’t care about these facts, seeking instead to propagate their myths and lies about public assistance for some perceived partisan gain.
No individual liberty is lost in the process. Individual liberty is being violated by taking from one individual to support another. Requiring a drug test is but a simple way to ensure that both interests are represented well and that the loss of liberty from one end is compensated by a good faith effort on the other. Make no mistake about it, the liberty interests isn't with the welfare recipient who benefits from the loss of individual liberty of another. By accepting the produce of the liberty of another he in turn should reciprocate in a like manner that benefits the person who's liberty was lost. It's a balancing of liberty, not a loss.
Whenever liberals advocate for destroying individual liberty you can always bet a conservative, if he can't get rid of the liberty sapping law, will attempt to balance the liberty interests.
Here's a poster who apparently gets paid for how many times he can work the word liberty into a post while utterly failing to comprehend it.
If we're back to the original topic, once again the concept shoots itself in its own foot with this non sequitur ass-umption that "If the state gives monetary benefits to person X, and X is found to have substance Y in his body, then person X must have purchased substance Y and must have done so with state benefits".
That conclusion has no bridge to it. It is inoperative. It's ass-umption. It is assuming facts which are not in evidence. It does not work. Period.
Your first point is garbage and I think you should read up on Madisonian theories of balancing liberty between two interests before going further. I could recommend a few books if you'd like on the subject of liberty and I apologize if I am so intellectually beyond you on the subject that you fail to comprehend. Shall I write it with a crayon for you?
Your second point fails to factor in employability, willingness to abide by work rules and the law, and the fact that money is fungible. If I have a limited amount of income and you give me money for food I have more money from that limited source for drugs. Particularly the limited amount I was spending on food is now available for drugs. Once again, Fungible. Why can't liberals understand finance and accounting?
This is the same crapola I get every time I point out this steely logic --- meltdowns into churlish ad hominem.
Once again, the presence of a substance --- ANY substance --- in the bodily fluids of a human being DOES NOT and CAN NOT automatically mean that therefore money changed hands as a condition of it being there.
Prove me wrong or STFU.