MoonPie
Member
- Jul 24, 2019
- 447
- 13
- 18
Huh? This was 1947 when Poles were supposed to have free elections as promised. You aren't making sense. Commies won by 80% which was bullshit of course so the US ambassador estimated the real number of commies at 39%. Yes it was an estimate but the point being a very large number of Poles were communist.That would make them anti Soviet, not anti commie. The fact is, 39% of Poles were commies in 1947 and they weren't Jewish.Do you have proof of that? A link maybe?No, it went from 2.5% communist in 1928 to 39% communist in 1947. Majority of the commies I believe were in eastern Poland.
The Jews were all dead. What was the Jewish population of Poland after WW2? 10,000?
of early Poland
How early? When Poland reached the height of its power?
Haha, the majority of Commies in 1930s Poland were non-Polish.
By the 1940s Poland became more Polish, but much more Communist?
Oh really?
This was post WW2 remember. The Nazis probably alienated a lot of Poles so they turned commie
Oh really what?? What was the Jewish population in Poland post WW2? When were Jews high ranking leaders in Poland?
Absurd,
especially considering Katyn Massacre, and the Polish Operation of the NKVD 1937 - 1938.
I'm calling Bull on that, considering Yalta Conference, and Potsdam Conference, the USA Ambassador had reason to lie.