thereisnospoon
Gold Member
It has no name because it does not exist.Once again, there is no such thing as income inequality.Yes dear, it is. In your own words:
But however selfish my motives are for engaging in capitalism, I nevertheless benefit many others. I benefit those who I acquire property from, those I pay taxes to, those I purchase supplies, services, and labor (i.e. employees) from, and all those to whom I provide a service or product that they need or want. And they in turn, quite coincidentally, benefit me by engaging in their own self serving interests.
If capitalism would not benefit most of the society members, we would replace is by something else long ago. Actually, the only reason we haven't is that we learned to replace laissez-faire capitalism with a modern welfare state.
Bottom line is that there is a place for the government, and its primary task is to correct bad outcomes that the free market creates. Like economic depressions, or too big an inequality.
Whatever you shall want to call it
The term presupposes the norm being all income is equal. Now please, stop the nonsense.