emilynghiem
Constitutionalist / Universalist
- Jan 21, 2010
- 23,669
- 4,181
- Thread starter
- #21
It's always been illegal for the Fed govt to get involved in health care programs, insurance etc., since the power to do that has never been mentioned in the Constitution, and the so-called "General Welfare clause" (better called the Uniformity clause) forbids to the Fed any program that does not benefit all Americans equally - a fact conveniently ignored by our distinguished brethern of the southpaw persuasion.
Now you want to amend the Constitution and insert the phrase "health care program" into it for the first time?
BAD idea.
I agree it is a bad IDEA and more importantly NOT NECESSARY!!!
I am not obsessed with this but WHY the NEED for a "health care program" when nearly 99% of people that are
legal, need and WANT health insurance have it!
The remaining 4 million can be covered at NO cost simply tax lawyers 10% as ACA taxes tanning salons.
Provide the 4 million that really want but can't get insurance with a $5,000 premium per year per uninsured.
Then tie the tax with the reduction of the $850 billion spent simply out of fear of lawsuits... i.e. lawyers !
Once this $850 billion declines payers claim payments reduce.
They reduce it will lower the $850 billion and state insurance regulators will not approve premiums that are not declining!
Congress can neither establish nor infringe on the belief in health care as a right,
but all legislation on this and other issues divided by beliefs (religious or political)
MUST be passed by consensus of the Senate to ensure there is no partisan bias.
Do I just need to say it simpler?
The Second Amendment allows for both "well regulated militia" and "right to bear arms" where this law is interpreted many different ways.
How to emphasize that there must be a consensus on law where
political beliefs or religious beliefs are involved,
while still treating ALL beliefs equally, whether the right to health care "as a belief"
and free choice or free market health care "as a belief" where
Congress cannot abuse majority-rule to impose a political bias.
What do I need to clarify or shorten to make this point?