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What makes/causes people to hold racist views ?
What makes them feel superior just based on the colour of their skin ?
Family,peer pressure,lack of education ?
Lack of success or a bad experience ?
Are other races the scapegoats for your failures ?
How do people get to this stage in their development ?
And what can be done about it ?
My own view is that it could be a combination of any of these things. I also think that economic depression amplifies hate in many. It tends to keep a low profile when times are good.
What can be done about it ?
Education is the only real way forward but some sanctions are needed when people are being offensive.
There are a lot of racists on this board. Some deny it but some are comfortable with that label. Be interesting to find out what triggered their racism.
and exposure to many different kinds of people and cultures in a positive setting is helpful. A positive setting is important. You might run into different races in prison, but I doubt that experience would assuage any racist tendencies.
What evidence do you have that exposure to many different kinds of people, and cultures makes people less racist?
The racist IAT scores against Blacks were highest (More racist) in states with more Blacks.
Racist IAT scores.
Black percentages.
What makes/causes people to hold racist views ?
What makes them feel superior just based on the colour of their skin ?
Family,peer pressure,lack of education ?
Lack of success or a bad experience ?
Are other races the scapegoats for your failures ?
How do people get to this stage in their development ?
And what can be done about it ?
My own view is that it could be a combination of any of these things. I also think that economic depression amplifies hate in many. It tends to keep a low profile when times are good.
What can be done about it ?
Education is the only real way forward but some sanctions are needed when people are being offensive.
There are a lot of racists on this board. Some deny it but some are comfortable with that label. Be interesting to find out what triggered their racism.
and exposure to many different kinds of people and cultures in a positive setting is helpful. A positive setting is important. You might run into different races in prison, but I doubt that experience would assuage any racist tendencies.
What evidence do you have that exposure to many different kinds of people, and cultures makes people less racist?
The racist IAT scores against Blacks were highest (More racist) in states with more Blacks.
Racist IAT scores.
Black percentages.
Yeah, I don't know what "IAT" is and I don't know where you got those maps. Could you give a link?
I'm not sure you actually understood the information I provided. There was no US when those laws were created. We were under British rule. Those laws were made by British subjects. These laws were made over 100 years before the Constitution was written.Less than 10% of slaves landed in North America. So why was there a race problem in America and not everywhere else?
Because in 1664 Maryland passed the first British colonial law banning marriage between whites and slaves -- a law that, among other things, orders the enslavement of white women who have married black men. And in 1691 the Commonwealth of Virginia banned all interracial marriages. These laws spread to every colony and set us on the course of racial division.
Everywhere else in the world the races were allowed to mix and they were assimilated.
Ha!
Races "mixed" everywhere, but the US refused to recognize interracial relationships as one between equals.
I'm not sure you actually understood the information I provided. There was no US when those laws were created. We were under British rule. Those laws were made by British subjects.Less than 10% of slaves landed in North America. So why was there a race problem in America and not everywhere else?
Because in 1664 Maryland passed the first British colonial law banning marriage between whites and slaves -- a law that, among other things, orders the enslavement of white women who have married black men. And in 1691 the Commonwealth of Virginia banned all interracial marriages. These laws spread to every colony and set us on the course of racial division.
Everywhere else in the world the races were allowed to mix and they were assimilated.
Ha!
Races "mixed" everywhere, but the US refused to recognize interracial relationships as one between equals.
What I am telling you is that it was this act which led to the racial divide. The rest of the world didn't have that problem because they did not prevent inter-mingling of the races. Blacks were assimilated into their societies. So rather than focusing on an erroneous and irrelevant assumption, try focusing on the merit of the argument.
So if you don't believe that this distinction between what was done ~350 years ago (i.e. cause) led to the racial divide which is unique to America (i.e. consequence), then why didn't the rest of the world - where 90% of all African slaves were sent - didn't have the problem we did?
That simply isn't true, is it? You kicked this guy out and made it an unsafe place for him to be there. So, I guess in England, ALL has a different meaning than here in the rest of the world.Part of your job was to put up with crap from customers. Just wondering. Have you corrected people who offend you in other times and places? The example you gave, is from thirty some years ago, right? Surely you haven't taken up facilitating since your restaurant stint.Interesting. Some managers would have handled it differently. In other words, there is a time and a place and a way to school other people. I would have been inclined to tell the customer, sorry, there's always gonna be music somebody doesn't like. Sir, the next track is non kaffir.In my early 20s I ran a restaurant and had a racist customer.Tommy, how would you go about sanctioning those who are offensive?
He wanted me to turn off the Bob Marley tape because he didnt like "f*ckin kaffir music".
So I kicked him out.
His behaviour was unacceptable and we didnt need his business.
I'm guessing you didn't have a long career in customer service.
Why would I facilitate his attitude ?
He actually had the cheek to phone in a complaint to our Head Office and was told to "F*ck off".
Nope, my job was to run the restaurant and ensure that there was a safe and respectful atmosphere for all customers.
I think that you are trying to equate this idiots actions with a customer who ,for example, didnt enjoy his meal,or thought that the service was slow. I was paid to put up with that. There is a huge difference.
To be honest I am not going to outline my action,or inaction, against racists I have encountered in my life, my experiences are no more valid than yours.
No. They absolutely codified into law no race mixing. It absolutely created a racial divide that has lasted for over 300 years. One that did not exist in other parts of the world where 9 times the number of slaves went because they allowed the races to mix. They did not create a racial division.I'm not sure you actually understood the information I provided. There was no US when those laws were created. We were under British rule. Those laws were made by British subjects.Less than 10% of slaves landed in North America. So why was there a race problem in America and not everywhere else?
Because in 1664 Maryland passed the first British colonial law banning marriage between whites and slaves -- a law that, among other things, orders the enslavement of white women who have married black men. And in 1691 the Commonwealth of Virginia banned all interracial marriages. These laws spread to every colony and set us on the course of racial division.
Everywhere else in the world the races were allowed to mix and they were assimilated.
Ha!
Races "mixed" everywhere, but the US refused to recognize interracial relationships as one between equals.
What I am telling you is that it was this act which led to the racial divide. The rest of the world didn't have that problem because they did not prevent inter-mingling of the races. Blacks were assimilated into their societies. So rather than focusing on an erroneous and irrelevant assumption, try focusing on the merit of the argument.
So if you don't believe that this distinction between what was done ~350 years ago (i.e. cause) led to the racial divide which is unique to America (i.e. consequence), then why didn't the rest of the world - where 90% of all African slaves were sent - didn't have the problem we did?
No, I got it.
I'm saying that those laws didn't prevent race-mixing, they simply refused to recognize those relationships.
That's why there were "one drop rules," about how much black blood made a person black. And why so many biracial people would "pass" for white, when they could get away with it.
That's all.
No. They absolutely codified into law no race mixing. It absolutely created a racial divide that has lasted for over 300 years. One that did not exist in other parts of the world where 9 times the number of slaves went because they allowed the races to mix. They did not create a racial division.I'm not sure you actually understood the information I provided. There was no US when those laws were created. We were under British rule. Those laws were made by British subjects.Less than 10% of slaves landed in North America. So why was there a race problem in America and not everywhere else?
Because in 1664 Maryland passed the first British colonial law banning marriage between whites and slaves -- a law that, among other things, orders the enslavement of white women who have married black men. And in 1691 the Commonwealth of Virginia banned all interracial marriages. These laws spread to every colony and set us on the course of racial division.
Everywhere else in the world the races were allowed to mix and they were assimilated.
Ha!
Races "mixed" everywhere, but the US refused to recognize interracial relationships as one between equals.
What I am telling you is that it was this act which led to the racial divide. The rest of the world didn't have that problem because they did not prevent inter-mingling of the races. Blacks were assimilated into their societies. So rather than focusing on an erroneous and irrelevant assumption, try focusing on the merit of the argument.
So if you don't believe that this distinction between what was done ~350 years ago (i.e. cause) led to the racial divide which is unique to America (i.e. consequence), then why didn't the rest of the world - where 90% of all African slaves were sent - didn't have the problem we did?
No, I got it.
I'm saying that those laws didn't prevent race-mixing, they simply refused to recognize those relationships.
That's why there were "one drop rules," about how much black blood made a person black. And why so many biracial people would "pass" for white, when they could get away with it.
That's all.
What exactly does that have to do with the division which existed exclusively in this country?No. They absolutely codified into law no race mixing. It absolutely created a racial divide that has lasted for over 300 years. One that did not exist in other parts of the world where 9 times the number of slaves went because they allowed the races to mix. They did not create a racial division.I'm not sure you actually understood the information I provided. There was no US when those laws were created. We were under British rule. Those laws were made by British subjects.Less than 10% of slaves landed in North America. So why was there a race problem in America and not everywhere else?
Because in 1664 Maryland passed the first British colonial law banning marriage between whites and slaves -- a law that, among other things, orders the enslavement of white women who have married black men. And in 1691 the Commonwealth of Virginia banned all interracial marriages. These laws spread to every colony and set us on the course of racial division.
Everywhere else in the world the races were allowed to mix and they were assimilated.
Ha!
Races "mixed" everywhere, but the US refused to recognize interracial relationships as one between equals.
What I am telling you is that it was this act which led to the racial divide. The rest of the world didn't have that problem because they did not prevent inter-mingling of the races. Blacks were assimilated into their societies. So rather than focusing on an erroneous and irrelevant assumption, try focusing on the merit of the argument.
So if you don't believe that this distinction between what was done ~350 years ago (i.e. cause) led to the racial divide which is unique to America (i.e. consequence), then why didn't the rest of the world - where 90% of all African slaves were sent - didn't have the problem we did?
No, I got it.
I'm saying that those laws didn't prevent race-mixing, they simply refused to recognize those relationships.
That's why there were "one drop rules," about how much black blood made a person black. And why so many biracial people would "pass" for white, when they could get away with it.
That's all.
However did all those biracial slaves get born?
Where were the owners prosecuted for race-mixing? Or the black slaves for that matter?
What exactly does that have to do with the division which existed exclusively in this country?No. They absolutely codified into law no race mixing. It absolutely created a racial divide that has lasted for over 300 years. One that did not exist in other parts of the world where 9 times the number of slaves went because they allowed the races to mix. They did not create a racial division.I'm not sure you actually understood the information I provided. There was no US when those laws were created. We were under British rule. Those laws were made by British subjects.Ha!
Races "mixed" everywhere, but the US refused to recognize interracial relationships as one between equals.
What I am telling you is that it was this act which led to the racial divide. The rest of the world didn't have that problem because they did not prevent inter-mingling of the races. Blacks were assimilated into their societies. So rather than focusing on an erroneous and irrelevant assumption, try focusing on the merit of the argument.
So if you don't believe that this distinction between what was done ~350 years ago (i.e. cause) led to the racial divide which is unique to America (i.e. consequence), then why didn't the rest of the world - where 90% of all African slaves were sent - didn't have the problem we did?
No, I got it.
I'm saying that those laws didn't prevent race-mixing, they simply refused to recognize those relationships.
That's why there were "one drop rules," about how much black blood made a person black. And why so many biracial people would "pass" for white, when they could get away with it.
That's all.
However did all those biracial slaves get born?
Where were the owners prosecuted for race-mixing? Or the black slaves for that matter?
But let me answer your question directly, as a rule those bi-racial children became slaves or were put to death. You don't seem to understand the distinction though. When I say race mixing, I mean to say they were allowed to marry. They were assimilated into the other societies. It was never a big deal to see a white woman with a black man. That division never existed in the rest of the world. It only existed here and it was the doings of British subjects who ran the colonies.
What can be done about it ?
There are a lot of racists on this board. Some deny it but some are comfortable with that label. Be interesting to find out what triggered their racism.
Less than 10% of slaves landed in North America. So why was there a race problem in America and not everywhere else?
Because in 1664 Maryland passed the first British colonial law banning marriage between whites and slaves -- a law that, among other things, orders the enslavement of white women who have married black men. And in 1691 the Commonwealth of Virginia banned all interracial marriages. These laws spread to every colony and set us on the course of racial division.
Everywhere else in the world the races were allowed to mix and they were assimilated.
Take it up with Thomas Sowell.Less than 10% of slaves landed in North America. So why was there a race problem in America and not everywhere else?
Because in 1664 Maryland passed the first British colonial law banning marriage between whites and slaves -- a law that, among other things, orders the enslavement of white women who have married black men. And in 1691 the Commonwealth of Virginia banned all interracial marriages. These laws spread to every colony and set us on the course of racial division.
Everywhere else in the world the races were allowed to mix and they were assimilated.
False premise.
This makes me think of something I just read: Robert A. Gordon, retired sociologist who taught at John Hopkins University believes there are direct correlations between race, IQ, poverty, juvenile delinquency, and criminality, all of which he argues are genetically based characteristics. Gordon and many of his colleagues have attempted to turn the tables on their critics, accusing them of fascist tactics in their criticism of neoracism. This is a tactic often used against liberals, in their attempt to deflect criticism of their own fascist, racist and Nazi leanings, while defending racist ideology and policies. These policies lead to continuing and increasing racism and to massive separation. (From The Myth of Race)What makes/causes people to hold racist views ?
What makes them feel superior just based on the colour of their skin ?
Family,peer pressure,lack of education ?
Lack of success or a bad experience ?
Are other races the scapegoats for your failures ?
How do people get to this stage in their development ?
And what can be done about it ?
My own view is that it could be a combination of any of these things. I also think that economic depression amplifies hate in many. It tends to keep a low profile when times are good.
What can be done about it ?
Education is the only real way forward but some sanctions are needed when people are being offensive.
There are a lot of racists on this board. Some deny it but some are comfortable with that label. Be interesting to find out what triggered their racism.One word is all you need to know about racism....What makes/causes people to hold racist views ?
What makes them feel superior just based on the colour of their skin ?
LIBERALISM.
IF there were no liberals in the world, the words of Martin Luther King Jr would be followed. Judge not a man by the color of ones skin, but by the content of his character. The left can only use identity politics to advance their Marxist agenda, and NORMAL, US citizens rejected that premise, by not voting for 4 more years of Obama, which is why President Trump is in office. The more the left goes on their racist tirades, the more those people move to the right.
What makes/causes people to hold racist views ?
What makes them feel superior just based on the colour of their skin ?
Family,peer pressure,lack of education ?
Lack of success or a bad experience ?
Are other races the scapegoats for your failures ?
How do people get to this stage in their development ?
And what can be done about it ?
My own view is that it could be a combination of any of these things. I also think that economic depression amplifies hate in many. It tends to keep a low profile when times are good.
What can be done about it ?
Education is the only real way forward but some sanctions are needed when people are being offensive.
There are a lot of racists on this board. Some deny it but some are comfortable with that label. Be interesting to find out what triggered their racism.
Its a favourite tactic."The War on white People" is being fought in the pace where there brains should be.This makes me think of something I just read: Robert A. Gordon, retired sociologist who taught at John Hopkins University believes there are direct correlations between race, IQ, poverty, juvenile delinquency, and criminality, all of which he argues are genetically based characteristics. Gordon and many of his colleagues have attempted to turn the tables on their critics, accusing them of fascist tactics in their criticism of neoracism. This is a tactic often used against liberals, in their attempt to deflect criticism of their own fascist, racist and Nazi leanings, while defending racist ideology and policies. These policies lead to continuing and increasing racism and to massive separation. (From The Myth of Race)What makes/causes people to hold racist views ?
What makes them feel superior just based on the colour of their skin ?
Family,peer pressure,lack of education ?
Lack of success or a bad experience ?
Are other races the scapegoats for your failures ?
How do people get to this stage in their development ?
And what can be done about it ?
My own view is that it could be a combination of any of these things. I also think that economic depression amplifies hate in many. It tends to keep a low profile when times are good.
What can be done about it ?
Education is the only real way forward but some sanctions are needed when people are being offensive.
There are a lot of racists on this board. Some deny it but some are comfortable with that label. Be interesting to find out what triggered their racism.One word is all you need to know about racism....What makes/causes people to hold racist views ?
What makes them feel superior just based on the colour of their skin ?
LIBERALISM.
IF there were no liberals in the world, the words of Martin Luther King Jr would be followed. Judge not a man by the color of ones skin, but by the content of his character. The left can only use identity politics to advance their Marxist agenda, and NORMAL, US citizens rejected that premise, by not voting for 4 more years of Obama, which is why President Trump is in office. The more the left goes on their racist tirades, the more those people move to the right.
