Equat
Member
- Dec 16, 2009
- 110
- 6
- 16
You asked me if I were refering to the slave states that weren't treasonous with the Confederates. My answer is "No" because the Declaration of secession was not refering to those states. The Declaration was refering to the Federal Union as a whole, not to specific states, nor to specific counties in their states which did not secede.Well if you're referring to slaves then did the north allow freedom of speech or assembly for the slaves that were in the five slave states that remained in the Union? No.
The Confederates in their Declaration of secession were not indicting the slave states. The Confederates were indicting the Union.
And what does that have to do with what I said?