IlarMeilyr
Liability Reincarnate!
Here's a thought or three ...
The Second Amendment secures a right that pre-existed our Constitution. That right is the right to keep and bear arms for the purpose (minimally) of self-protection in one's own home.
The right is subject to SOME limitations and regulation by the government. But those governmental limitations and regulations on your right to have a gun in your own home cannot, properly, serve to effectively ban guns. (This means that if the state has a law that says you can have a gun but you need a license but the state's licensing law effectively denies you the ability to get licensed, then the law or laws violate the Constitution and are a legal nullity.)
This FEDERAL Government Amendment has now been "incorporated" which means that it DOES apply to STATE laws, too.
If we have a right that pre-dates the Constitution (i.e., the Constitution merely secures that right) and that right is associated with self-protection (and the protection of family) in one's own home, then the right of self-defense in one's own home is not something that any person should have to prove. It should be the requirement that the government prove that you were not protecting your family in your own home if that's where you happened to have made your stand against some (say) burglars or the like.
The Second Amendment secures a right that pre-existed our Constitution. That right is the right to keep and bear arms for the purpose (minimally) of self-protection in one's own home.
The right is subject to SOME limitations and regulation by the government. But those governmental limitations and regulations on your right to have a gun in your own home cannot, properly, serve to effectively ban guns. (This means that if the state has a law that says you can have a gun but you need a license but the state's licensing law effectively denies you the ability to get licensed, then the law or laws violate the Constitution and are a legal nullity.)
This FEDERAL Government Amendment has now been "incorporated" which means that it DOES apply to STATE laws, too.
If we have a right that pre-dates the Constitution (i.e., the Constitution merely secures that right) and that right is associated with self-protection (and the protection of family) in one's own home, then the right of self-defense in one's own home is not something that any person should have to prove. It should be the requirement that the government prove that you were not protecting your family in your own home if that's where you happened to have made your stand against some (say) burglars or the like.