Rat in the Hat
Gold Member
- Mar 31, 2010
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Why did the Bush SEC do that?
So I ask you all WHY?????????
Why did the Bush SEC do that?
what was their motivations?
What I am asking it why the Bush SEC implimented the Gramm Leach blieley act of 1999 which allowed the banks to sell securities for the first time since the passage of Glass Stegal act from the Great depression days.
when they implimented the Bill they held back the rules that involved the Broker rules for the banks.
So the banks could NOW sell seciurities but had no rules on Brokers.
Why did the Bush SEC do that?
what was their reasoning behind that move?
Not one person has EVER been able to answer that question in a away that makes sense
What was the reasoning the Bush SEC did this hold back of the broker provisions for 8 long years?
Now can anyone tell me a differing reason that makes sense as to WHY this part of the law was NOT implimented?