CDZ Why is "Mexican" a "Racist" Term?

Who claimed "Mexican" was a racist term?

Ah, feigning ignorance once again...or is it real? Are you really unaware of the widespread criticism of Trump's usage of that term as racist?

Do YOU think "Mexican" is is a racist term? (Or are you intellectually limited to carping from the sidelines?)

P.S. Precisely what "logical fallacy" are you referring to?

Republican Speaker of the House Paul Ryan did

House Speaker Paul Ryan ripped Donald Trump's recent remarks saying a judge presiding over a lawsuit involving his business was biased because of his Mexican heritage as "the textbook definition of a racist comment."
And Ryan still supports Trump. What does that say about the GOP?

Per Conservative pundit Bill Krystal:

Official position of the leadership of the Republican Party: Trump is an inexcusable bigot, and Trump must be our next president.

By embracing the Left's parameters, Krystal is embracing defeat.


We cannot win if we allow them to set the rules of the game and the meanings of words.


Krystal is a fool.
 
According to the thought police, Donald Trump's reference to a judge being "Mexican" is a "racist" statement. I can't think of another country to which this would apply. Can you?

It seems to me that, in the context of the questionable lawsuit against Trump University, this reference has much more to do with the Judge's affiliation with La Raza, a political organization which actively circumvents U.S. immigration law. Given Trump's high profile political stance to the contrary, does not the Judge have a potential conflict of interest? Why should this be considered a "racist" issue?

P.S. Please look up "ad hominem" before responding.

The judge has no affiliation with La Raza, the political organization nor is hei a "Mexican", he was born and raised in Indiana and his family is no more immigrant than Trumps own parents. What makes it racist is the intent behind it's use (a slur) and the inaccuracy of it's use.


People are sloppy with ethnic and national terms all the time.

I have a buddy who has referred to himself as german. It was an ethnic reference. He was born here. His parents were born here. He is not racist against himself.

My father in law's family often refers to themselves as italian. They are not Italian. THey are ethnically italian.

Trump was referring to the Judge being a mexican.

It is accurate, and in no way used as a slur.


You lefties have been stating over and over again for MONTHS that HIspanics hate Trump.

If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.
 
If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

No


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.
 
According to the thought police, Donald Trump's reference to a judge being "Mexican" is a "racist" statement. I can't think of another country to which this would apply. Can you?

It seems to me that, in the context of the questionable lawsuit against Trump University, this reference has much more to do with the Judge's affiliation with La Raza, a political organization which actively circumvents U.S. immigration law. Given Trump's high profile political stance to the contrary, does not the Judge have a potential conflict of interest? Why should this be considered a "racist" issue?

P.S. Please look up "ad hominem" before responding.

The judge has no affiliation with La Raza, the political organization nor is hei a "Mexican", he was born and raised in Indiana and his family is no more immigrant than Trumps own parents. What makes it racist is the intent behind it's use (a slur) and the inaccuracy of it's use.


People are sloppy with ethnic and national terms all the time.

I have a buddy who has referred to himself as german. It was an ethnic reference. He was born here. His parents were born here. He is not racist against himself.

My father in law's family often refers to themselves as italian. They are not Italian. THey are ethnically italian.

Trump was referring to the Judge being a mexican.

It is accurate, and in no way used as a slur.


You lefties have been stating over and over again for MONTHS that HIspanics hate Trump.

If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.

Its like the example i used before and Corral ignored. Most judges hate pedos but they make sure they get a fair trial.
 
If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

No


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.
No to your logical fallacy.
 
According to the thought police, Donald Trump's reference to a judge being "Mexican" is a "racist" statement. I can't think of another country to which this would apply. Can you?

It seems to me that, in the context of the questionable lawsuit against Trump University, this reference has much more to do with the Judge's affiliation with La Raza, a political organization which actively circumvents U.S. immigration law. Given Trump's high profile political stance to the contrary, does not the Judge have a potential conflict of interest? Why should this be considered a "racist" issue?

P.S. Please look up "ad hominem" before responding.

The judge has no affiliation with La Raza, the political organization nor is hei a "Mexican", he was born and raised in Indiana and his family is no more immigrant than Trumps own parents. What makes it racist is the intent behind it's use (a slur) and the inaccuracy of it's use.


People are sloppy with ethnic and national terms all the time.

I have a buddy who has referred to himself as german. It was an ethnic reference. He was born here. His parents were born here. He is not racist against himself.

My father in law's family often refers to themselves as italian. They are not Italian. THey are ethnically italian.

Trump was referring to the Judge being a mexican.

It is accurate, and in no way used as a slur.


You lefties have been stating over and over again for MONTHS that HIspanics hate Trump.

If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.

Its like the example i used before and Corral ignored. Most judges hate pedos but they make sure they get a fair trial.

Ya, it's a weak excuse isn't it?

It does seem Trump supporters will excuse anything and everything Trump does.
 
If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

No


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.

How would you apply that to Asclepias' Pedo example?
 
According to the thought police, Donald Trump's reference to a judge being "Mexican" is a "racist" statement. I can't think of another country to which this would apply. Can you?

It seems to me that, in the context of the questionable lawsuit against Trump University, this reference has much more to do with the Judge's affiliation with La Raza, a political organization which actively circumvents U.S. immigration law. Given Trump's high profile political stance to the contrary, does not the Judge have a potential conflict of interest? Why should this be considered a "racist" issue?

P.S. Please look up "ad hominem" before responding.

The judge has no affiliation with La Raza, the political organization nor is hei a "Mexican", he was born and raised in Indiana and his family is no more immigrant than Trumps own parents. What makes it racist is the intent behind it's use (a slur) and the inaccuracy of it's use.


People are sloppy with ethnic and national terms all the time.

I have a buddy who has referred to himself as german. It was an ethnic reference. He was born here. His parents were born here. He is not racist against himself.

My father in law's family often refers to themselves as italian. They are not Italian. THey are ethnically italian.

Trump was referring to the Judge being a mexican.

It is accurate, and in no way used as a slur.


You lefties have been stating over and over again for MONTHS that HIspanics hate Trump.

If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.


Whites do not hate Blacks.

According to the LEft, and many on the Right, Hispanics do HATE Trump.

Thus, by definition, this Judge hates Trump and should recluse himself.

Trump has a right to a fair and impartial trial.
 
According to the thought police, Donald Trump's reference to a judge being "Mexican" is a "racist" statement. I can't think of another country to which this would apply. Can you?

It seems to me that, in the context of the questionable lawsuit against Trump University, this reference has much more to do with the Judge's affiliation with La Raza, a political organization which actively circumvents U.S. immigration law. Given Trump's high profile political stance to the contrary, does not the Judge have a potential conflict of interest? Why should this be considered a "racist" issue?

P.S. Please look up "ad hominem" before responding.

The judge has no affiliation with La Raza, the political organization nor is hei a "Mexican", he was born and raised in Indiana and his family is no more immigrant than Trumps own parents. What makes it racist is the intent behind it's use (a slur) and the inaccuracy of it's use.


People are sloppy with ethnic and national terms all the time.

I have a buddy who has referred to himself as german. It was an ethnic reference. He was born here. His parents were born here. He is not racist against himself.

My father in law's family often refers to themselves as italian. They are not Italian. THey are ethnically italian.

Trump was referring to the Judge being a mexican.

It is accurate, and in no way used as a slur.


You lefties have been stating over and over again for MONTHS that HIspanics hate Trump.

If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.

Its like the example i used before and Corral ignored. Most judges hate pedos but they make sure they get a fair trial.

Ya, it's a weak excuse isn't it?

It does seem Trump supporters will excuse anything and everything Trump does.

Saying it is a weak excuse does not make it a weak excuse.

To support that claim, you have to point out the flaw in my reasoning.

So, anytime now...
 
If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

No


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.

How would you apply that to Asclepias' Pedo example?


Judges, generally do NOT hate pedophiles.

Judges thus could and do give pedophiles fair and impartial trials.

ON the other hand, if a judge had a child that was molested by a specific pedophile, that Judge would hate that particular pedophile and should recluse himself from any trial of that particular pedophile.


For that pedophile has a RIght to a Fair and Impartial Trial.
 
Morons like Ryan need to understand that we have to stop letting the fucking lefties define the parameters of the argument.

If we do that, we will NEVER win.

You leftest and many anti-trump righties have been going on for MONTHS about how Trump has offended HIspanics, with his supposedly "Racist" comments and polices.

If that is true, then suspecting that a hispanic judge, who is a member of a La Raza lawyer group, might be biased against Trump is COMPLETELY REASONABLE, not racist!

And any person that A. said that hispanics hate Trump and B. that it is racist for Trump to believe a Hispanic hates him,

that person is a being hypocritical.
Thats not the argument at all. Basically your saying a judge that hates pedophiles cant be professional and make sure the pedo gets a fair trial. You always say something dumb and then get caught in your own logic loop.



What "is not the argument"?

You lefties have certainly been saying that Hispanics hate Trump.

If a Hispanic Judge Hates Trump, he should recluse himself, just as Trump said.


Do Hispanics hate Trump or not?
Did the judge say he hates Trump?

You would never take the word of a White man as to whether they had a bias against a black man.

Yet you are willing to take this judge at his word?

That is YOU being biased, and using different rules for different folks, based on their skin color.
Of course I am willing to take his word. He isnt white.

What my biases are isnt the point. I asked did the judge say he hates Trump. Dont stall. Answer the question.


Your biases are the point.

You don't want Trump, a white man, to get a fair trial.

You want him to lose.

YOU want the judge to stay BECAUSE you assume that he does indeed hate Trump and will rule against him regardless of the merits of the case.
 
If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

No


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.

How would you apply that to Asclepias' Pedo example?


Judges, generally do NOT hate pedophiles.

Judges thus could and do give pedophiles fair and impartial trials.

ON the other hand, if a judge had a child that was molested by a specific pedophile, that Judge would hate that particular pedophile and should recluse himself from any trial of that particular pedophile.


For that pedophile has a RIght to a Fair and Impartial Trial.

Right, but likewise - JUST because a judge had a hispanic background - does not mean he can't be impartial on a case involving a university - there is nothing that indicates he dislikes Trump personally - no remarks, no actions, no exchanges *unlike your pedophile-judge-child example*.
 
If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

No


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.
No to your logical fallacy.


LIke I said, you would not answer.

You said, no. All I did what ask "no" to what?

And you could not answer.

You are stone cold busted.
 
The judge has no affiliation with La Raza, the political organization nor is hei a "Mexican", he was born and raised in Indiana and his family is no more immigrant than Trumps own parents. What makes it racist is the intent behind it's use (a slur) and the inaccuracy of it's use.


People are sloppy with ethnic and national terms all the time.

I have a buddy who has referred to himself as german. It was an ethnic reference. He was born here. His parents were born here. He is not racist against himself.

My father in law's family often refers to themselves as italian. They are not Italian. THey are ethnically italian.

Trump was referring to the Judge being a mexican.

It is accurate, and in no way used as a slur.


You lefties have been stating over and over again for MONTHS that HIspanics hate Trump.

If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.

Its like the example i used before and Corral ignored. Most judges hate pedos but they make sure they get a fair trial.

Ya, it's a weak excuse isn't it?

It does seem Trump supporters will excuse anything and everything Trump does.

Saying it is a weak excuse does not make it a weak excuse.

To support that claim, you have to point out the flaw in my reasoning.

So, anytime now...


Your entire argument is built on a faulty premise: that a judge can't be impartial in absence of direct evidence to the contrary, such as remarks, actions, or involvement in some aspect of the case that create a conflict of interest. In this case ethnic heritage alone is insufficient given the complete absence of any other factor.
 
If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

No


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.

How would you apply that to Asclepias' Pedo example?


Judges, generally do NOT hate pedophiles.

Judges thus could and do give pedophiles fair and impartial trials.

ON the other hand, if a judge had a child that was molested by a specific pedophile, that Judge would hate that particular pedophile and should recluse himself from any trial of that particular pedophile.


For that pedophile has a RIght to a Fair and Impartial Trial.

Right, but likewise - JUST because a judge had a hispanic background - does not mean he can't be impartial on a case involving a university - there is nothing that indicates he dislikes Trump personally - no remarks, no actions, no exchanges *unlike your pedophile-judge-child example*.


Oh? There isn't?

The Left and many on the RIght have been saying that HIspanics HATE Trump.

Do you believe that?
 
People are sloppy with ethnic and national terms all the time.

I have a buddy who has referred to himself as german. It was an ethnic reference. He was born here. His parents were born here. He is not racist against himself.

My father in law's family often refers to themselves as italian. They are not Italian. THey are ethnically italian.

Trump was referring to the Judge being a mexican.

It is accurate, and in no way used as a slur.


You lefties have been stating over and over again for MONTHS that HIspanics hate Trump.

If that is true, that, by definition, this hispanic judge hates Trump.

Thus he should recluse himself.

Trump has a Right to a fair and impartial trial.

Not one run by a judge that hates him.

A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.

Its like the example i used before and Corral ignored. Most judges hate pedos but they make sure they get a fair trial.

Ya, it's a weak excuse isn't it?

It does seem Trump supporters will excuse anything and everything Trump does.

Saying it is a weak excuse does not make it a weak excuse.

To support that claim, you have to point out the flaw in my reasoning.

So, anytime now...


Your entire argument is built on a faulty premise: that a judge can't be impartial in absence of direct evidence to the contrary, such as remarks, actions, or involvement in some aspect of the case that create a conflict of interest. In this case ethnic heritage alone is insufficient given the complete absence of any other factor.

Do you think the judge has heard about Trump before this case?
 


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.

How would you apply that to Asclepias' Pedo example?


Judges, generally do NOT hate pedophiles.

Judges thus could and do give pedophiles fair and impartial trials.

ON the other hand, if a judge had a child that was molested by a specific pedophile, that Judge would hate that particular pedophile and should recluse himself from any trial of that particular pedophile.


For that pedophile has a RIght to a Fair and Impartial Trial.

Right, but likewise - JUST because a judge had a hispanic background - does not mean he can't be impartial on a case involving a university - there is nothing that indicates he dislikes Trump personally - no remarks, no actions, no exchanges *unlike your pedophile-judge-child example*.


Oh? There isn't?

The Left and many on the RIght have been saying that HIspanics HATE Trump.

Do you believe that?
A judge is a judge, you could use the same argument that a white judge can't possibly be impartial to a black defendent - but they can and they are. If this particular judge has no record of actions or remarks indicating a bias, then why should he recuse himself? If Trump hates Mexicans, then his use of that term is clearly intended to be a slur.

Its like the example i used before and Corral ignored. Most judges hate pedos but they make sure they get a fair trial.

Ya, it's a weak excuse isn't it?

It does seem Trump supporters will excuse anything and everything Trump does.

Saying it is a weak excuse does not make it a weak excuse.

To support that claim, you have to point out the flaw in my reasoning.

So, anytime now...


Your entire argument is built on a faulty premise: that a judge can't be impartial in absence of direct evidence to the contrary, such as remarks, actions, or involvement in some aspect of the case that create a conflict of interest. In this case ethnic heritage alone is insufficient given the complete absence of any other factor.

Do you think the judge has heard about Trump before this case?

Is that sufficient evidence to force a recusal? If so, there's going to be severe shortages of judges around the country.
 


no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.

How would you apply that to Asclepias' Pedo example?


Judges, generally do NOT hate pedophiles.

Judges thus could and do give pedophiles fair and impartial trials.

ON the other hand, if a judge had a child that was molested by a specific pedophile, that Judge would hate that particular pedophile and should recluse himself from any trial of that particular pedophile.


For that pedophile has a RIght to a Fair and Impartial Trial.

Right, but likewise - JUST because a judge had a hispanic background - does not mean he can't be impartial on a case involving a university - there is nothing that indicates he dislikes Trump personally - no remarks, no actions, no exchanges *unlike your pedophile-judge-child example*.


Oh? There isn't?

The Left and many on the RIght have been saying that HIspanics HATE Trump.

Do you believe that?

I'm looking for actual evidence - not nebulous broad brush claims. Evidence would be that the judge said or did something to indicate he had a personal bias against Trump. What have you got?
 
no, what?

Do Hispanics NOT hate Trump?

Is the Judge NOT hispanic?

Should a Judge that HATES the defendant NOT recluse himself?

Does Trump NOT have a right to a fair and impartial trial?

All rhetorical questions. I know you will not answer any of them.

You can't without admitting that I am right, or looking like a fool.

How would you apply that to Asclepias' Pedo example?


Judges, generally do NOT hate pedophiles.

Judges thus could and do give pedophiles fair and impartial trials.

ON the other hand, if a judge had a child that was molested by a specific pedophile, that Judge would hate that particular pedophile and should recluse himself from any trial of that particular pedophile.


For that pedophile has a RIght to a Fair and Impartial Trial.

Right, but likewise - JUST because a judge had a hispanic background - does not mean he can't be impartial on a case involving a university - there is nothing that indicates he dislikes Trump personally - no remarks, no actions, no exchanges *unlike your pedophile-judge-child example*.


Oh? There isn't?

The Left and many on the RIght have been saying that HIspanics HATE Trump.

Do you believe that?

I'm looking for actual evidence - not nebulous broad brush claims. Evidence would be that the judge said or did something to indicate he had a personal bias against Trump. What have you got?
Corral is on his end game. All you will get from him is deflections and more logical fallacies.
 

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