He didn't. He was referencing Psalm 82 which was a rebuke of man using little "g" gods. In John 10:34 Jesus uses the verse to prove that those to whom the word of God is addressed can fittingly be called “gods,” he's not saying men are literally gods. He is making that reference because he has done so much more as a rebuttal to their arguing he committed blaspheme. That wasn't the great reveal you guys think it was. That was Jesus defending himself against an accusation of blaspheme.
Were you born of a virgin? Is God your literal father. Have you performed miracles like Jesus did? Are you a god right now? Because Jesus didn't ask, "can ye become gods?" Jesus asked, "Ye are gods?" with a little "g."
Yes, God has called us all gods with a little "g". This is because he is the only God whom we should worship. He stresses his true meaning of Psalms 82:6 in John 10 when the Jews accused him of blasphemy for calling himself the Son of God. Here is what he said:
John 10:31-36
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
Here the Jews are taking up stones to stone Jesus for blasphemy because he called himself the Son of God.
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
Here Jesus questions them as to why they seek to stone him. He asks, "for which of those works do ye stone me?".
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
The Jews reply by telling Jesus they are not stoning him for any good works but for blasphemy because Jesus being a man is making himself to be God. They Jews felt that this was blasphemy to consider yourself to be God by calling himself the Son of God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
Jesus' responds by reminding the Jews that it is written in their law that He called all of us gods. (reference Psalms 82:6)
35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
Jesus then reasons that if He called all of us gods unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken:
36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
how can you say that it is blasphemy that Jesus calls himself the son of God?
Here Jesus uses Psalms 82:6 to point out that the Jewish law stated that to all who the word of God came were gods. If that be there law, then how could it be blasphemy to call himself the Son of God? Jesus uses this verse as if it means that we are all literally gods and that it is not blasphemy for himself to call himself the Son of God. So Jesus uses the verse in its true context. We are gods and all of us are children of the Most High. Gods beget gods. This is what Paul taught in the book of Acts:
Acts 17:28-29
28 For
in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said,
For we are also his offspring.
29
Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man’s device.
We are the literal offspring of our Father in Heaven. We are his spirit children.
Hebrews 12:9
9 Furthermore we have had fathers of our flesh which corrected us, and we gave them reverence: shall we not much rather be in subjection unto
the Father of spirits, and live?
As the literal offspring of God, we are gods even children of the Most High:
Psalms 82:6
6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.
Were you born of a virgin? NO but my spirit and yours was born of heavenly parents.
Is God your literal father. YES He is the literal Father of my spirit.
Have you performed miracles like Jesus did? NO. Why would that matter?
Are you a god right now? YES According to the words of Jesus. See John 10:34 and Psalms 82:6
Because Jesus didn't ask, "can ye become gods?" Jesus asked, "Ye are gods?" with a little "g." NO. Jesus simply asked the Jews if was not written in their law that He said, "Ye are gods". He wasn't asking if the were gods but was pointing out to them that their very law has their God stating that "Ye are gods". See Psalms 82:6 above for what Jesus was pointing out to the Jews. He wasn't asking if they were gods but was asking if it was not written in their law that he said, "Ye are gods". The context of John 10 clearly tells us that by the way it is used, that Jesus literally meant "gods".