George Costanza
A Friendly Liberal
- Mar 10, 2009
- 5,188
- 1,160
How's this for proof that Miranda is effective? I am in the process of opening a new case. The police report contains the following:
"I handcuffed and detained both suspects in the back seat of my vehicle pending further investigation." (A clear detention, i.e., Miranda must be given from this point forward if any questioning is done.)
"I asked S/Valencia what happened." (Note: No Miranda warning given.) "He told me he and a whole bunch of other guys beat up V/Aguirre." (A flat out confession to the assault charge.)
"I advised S/Valencia of his Miranda rights and asked if he would like to speak to me about the assault. He said 'No.'"
Read that one over a couple of times so you can get a full handle on what is happening here. Without Miranda, the guy confesses. The cop, realizing he just got a worthless confession, now Mirandizes the suspect (Valencia) and, guess what? After having been advised, he clams up.
Seems to me that, sometimes, suspects listen to the wording of the Miranda warning and actually make a conscious decision that, hey, maybe it IS better for me if I don't say anything.
I guess you could call that "effective" if the effect you're looking for is to make criminals clam up. Not being a sleazeball defense lawyer, I don't really have that as my goal.
Lighten up, Francis . . .