Bombur
VIP Member
- Jan 9, 2014
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No, they obviously don't work. According to Keynes, you can have high inflation or high unemployment. You can't have both. There is supposed to be a trade-off between one and the other.
That is correct.
High interest rates (set by central bank) do not mean high inflation. In 1982 the inflation was dropping like a stone (google "disinfaltion"), and that was goal was being achieved trough high unemployment.
Excuse me, I meant we had both high unemployment and high inflation. We also had high interest rates - a triple whammy. That's what the "misery index" referred to.
"It started to drop," but it still remained high while unemployment was sky high. I recall it very distinctly because I was unemployed at the time.
It sure as hell does because Keynes says that inflation relieves unemployment, but after that recession both unemployment and inflation came down. They should have gone in opposite directions, according to Keynes.
Also, in all the Latin American kleptocracies, they have had both for decades.
No, they haven't. What they have had is high natural rate of unemployment (google NAIRU), i.e. the rate that can't be lowered w/o rising inflation. That thing varies between societies.
ROFL! Where does Keynes ever refer to "natural unemployment?" Why should it be higher for one society than another? Keynes has no explanation.
I don't think you can really compare the inflation of the 1970's to anything Keynes was talking about with regards to inflation. The inflation of the 70's was a result of bad monetary policy as opposed to a more natural change in the effective money supply due to economic activity and employment relative to the natural employment rate.
Monetary policy is not a cure all. Neither is government debt spending during recessions. Both are meant to help soften the blow of economic corrections but they can't undo the need of a correction.