JimBowie1958
Old Fogey
- Sep 25, 2011
- 63,590
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My dear Asclepijas:
If "White privilege/racism is the primary cause historically, directly, and indirectly for any self defeating behavior in the communities of brown and black people," then why did this behavior lie dormant until the advent of the Great Society in the 1960's? Prior to that time, illegitimacy rates between Negroes and "whites" were approximately the same.
And BTW, I'm not denying the existence of "white privilege" or of pervasive racism at various times and places in our history. I'm only making the point that people who behave in a grossly self-destructive way will get no sympathy blaming their problems on others.
"I may be fat, ugly, and lazy, but that guy refused to hire me because I'm Irish!"
Doesn't exactly inspire sympathy, does it?
There is nothing wrong with being fat and ugly.
*sniff*