I think my logic is pretty straightforward but you’re pretending it isn’t. We are talking about a woman with a pre-planned idea to use abortion as a form of birth control. If she decides to have an abortion AFTER an unwanted pregnancy, that is something else entirely.The very fact they have murdered the baby proves they are using it for birth control. I don't know how could make it any simpler for you to understand.
Saying women do not use infanticide as a form of birth control when they are clearly controlling births by murdering a baby is semantics for idiots.
Your circular logic must make you dizzy