Dana7360
Diamond Member
- Aug 6, 2014
- 15,147
- 13,596
”What it meant was that in order to have an American baby, the parents had to be Americans themselves.”No, I never said that. Subject to the Jurisdiction Therein meant that they have no allegiance with another country period.
So in my scenario, let's say China wanted to sneak in a dirty bomb using this Chinese citizen of theirs who is (by our standards) an American citizen. Much easier to do being an American citizen than being a visitor of some kind. Or you can even use any country from the middle-east for that matter.
Allegiance has nothing to do with jurisdiction.
If any person of any citizenship commits a crime in the US, unless they have sovereign immunity, the US has the power to prosecute that person. That’s what jurisdiction means. Allegiance is irrelevant.
Birthright Citizenship | Federation for American Immigration Reform
Again, that link does not refute that a person in the United States is under the jurisdiction of the United States, regardless of citizenship.
All it does is say that “some scholars argue” allegiance of a child of illegal aliens without postulating why. It does not argue that a foreign national who commits a crime in the US isn’t under the jurisdiction of US law.
It has nothing to do with law and breaking the law. So do tell: what do you think the clause meant? If they wanted for anybody to drift over and have American children regardless of the citizen status of the parents, why include that clause?
What it meant was that in order to have an American baby, the parents had to be Americans themselves. That's the argument the Supreme Court will eventually hear and decide on.
LOLOL
According to your nonsense, Trump’s own son, Barron, isn’t a U.S. citizen because Melanie Trump wasn’t a U.S. citizen when he was born.
Are ya feeling stupid yet?
Neither would trump jr. Ivana Trump became a citizen of the United States after trump jr was born but before Ivanka and Eric were born.