Israel's Legal Right To Exist

But between the ceding of the territory by the Ottomans and the declaration of independence there was no State and no sovereignty.
Not true. The right to sovereignty does not require a state. It belongs to the people.

That is just one of Israel's talking points to confuse the people.
So you can confirm that sovereignty belongs to the Israeli people who established independence and self governance.

So there's no issue.
The problem is that they did it in Palestine violating the Palestinian's rights. Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others.
Nice dodge™

As this has been addressed for you countless times, I'm disappointed that you keep cutting and pasting the same nonsense.

Your suggestion is "they" did it in your invented "country of Pal'istan". There was no such place. The geographic area of Pal'istan was an area ceded by the Ottomans to the British Mandate.

The Jewish people succeeded in self-governance and sovereignty. The Arabs-Moslems could not and still can not.

Nothing was taken away from the Arab-Moslem squatters.
Palestine is a territory defined by international borders. It was populated by a people who had legal citizenship.

You can throw all the Israeli talking points you like. It changes nothing.

As this has been addressed for you countless times, I'm disappointed that you keep cutting and pasting the same nonsense.

Pal'istan was a territory, yes. It was administered by the British after the Ottoman Turks ceded all rights and title to the territory.

The Jewish people established a sovereign state within the territory. The Jewish people established independence and self governance while the Arab-Moslem squatters could not.

Read the above many times. It will save bandwidth not having to write it out for you many more times.
 
The problem is that they did it in Palestine violating the Palestinian's rights. Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others.

They did it in a territory which had TWO peoples seeking self-determination.

Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others. If you believe that than you must hold it true for both peoples. If one group has the right to self-determination, then the other group also has the right to self-determination.

Palestinians do not have the right to violate Jewish rights. And Jews do not have the right to violate Arab Muslim "Palestinian" rights.
 
The Jews were living on another continent and invaded Palestine. The migration of the Europeans to Palestine was a violation of the rights of the native non-Jews, Christians and Muslims.
 
The Jews were living on another continent and invaded Palestine. The migration of the Europeans to Palestine was a violation of the rights of the native non-Jews, Christians and Muslims.
There was no invasion of Pal'istan by Jews. You and Tinmore spend too much time cutting and pasting the same goofy slogans while being ignorant of the facts.

You're simply asking excuses for the Arab-Moslem invaders / squatters from Egypt, Syria and Lebanon.
 
Of course there was an invasion. The Jews were on another continent (Europe) and took over a place inhabited by non-Jews situated in Asia, a different continent. It's just logic you silly goose.
 
Of course there was an invasion. The Jews were on another continent (Europe) and took over a place inhabited by non-Jews situated in Asia, a different continent. It's just logic you silly goose.
Your silly "Invasion" slogan is a hoot. It's more of the ignorance you promote. It appears that you and our friend Tinmore must cut and paste goofy slogans from the same source.
 
Of course there was an invasion. The Jews were on another continent (Europe) and took over a place inhabited by non-Jews situated in Asia, a different continent. It's just logic you silly goose.
Your silly "Invasion" slogan is a hoot. It's more of the ignorance you promote. It appears that you and our friend Tinmore must cut and paste goofy slogans from the same source.
Indeed, actual history.
 
Pal'istan was a territory, yes. It was administered by the British after the Ottoman Turks ceded all rights and title to the territory.
That is correct.

Palestine was a territory defined by international borders.

Britain did administer Palestine but it did not annex or otherwise claim sovereignty.

The territory was ceded to the people who were to have citizenship in their respective states. It is the citizens who have the right to sovereignty.

Look it up.
 
But between the ceding of the territory by the Ottomans and the declaration of independence there was no State and no sovereignty.
Not true. The right to sovereignty does not require a state. It belongs to the people.

That is just one of Israel's talking points to confuse the people.
So you can confirm that sovereignty belongs to the Israeli people who established independence and self governance.

So there's no issue.
The problem is that they did it in Palestine violating the Palestinian's rights. Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others.
Nice dodge™

As this has been addressed for you countless times, I'm disappointed that you keep cutting and pasting the same nonsense.

Your suggestion is "they" did it in your invented "country of Pal'istan". There was no such place. The geographic area of Pal'istan was an area ceded by the Ottomans to the British Mandate.

The Jewish people succeeded in self-governance and sovereignty. The Arabs-Moslems could not and still can not.

Nothing was taken away from the Arab-Moslem squatters.
Palestine is a territory defined by international borders. It was populated by a people who had legal citizenship.

You can throw all the Israeli talking points you like. It changes nothing.

LEGAL CITIZENSHIP? Tell us more about this Palestinian squatters "legal citizenship"
 
Not true. The right to sovereignty does not require a state. It belongs to the people.

That is just one of Israel's talking points to confuse the people.
So you can confirm that sovereignty belongs to the Israeli people who established independence and self governance.

So there's no issue.
The problem is that they did it in Palestine violating the Palestinian's rights. Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others.
Nice dodge™

As this has been addressed for you countless times, I'm disappointed that you keep cutting and pasting the same nonsense.

Your suggestion is "they" did it in your invented "country of Pal'istan". There was no such place. The geographic area of Pal'istan was an area ceded by the Ottomans to the British Mandate.

The Jewish people succeeded in self-governance and sovereignty. The Arabs-Moslems could not and still can not.

Nothing was taken away from the Arab-Moslem squatters.
Palestine is a territory defined by international borders. It was populated by a people who had legal citizenship.

You can throw all the Israeli talking points you like. It changes nothing.

LEGAL CITIZENSHIP? Tell us more about this Palestinian squatters "legal citizenship"

What we do know is that Israel has a legal right to exist.

Legal Basis of the State of Israel
 
The UN had very cleverly put in a clause that stated only one party need accept and agree and the resolution would be live till it was acted on. Israel declared independence and so fulfilled the terms of 181.
Could you quote that passage?






Do you mean the one posted many times in the past that you totally ignore because it destroyed your POV.

It was an either/or state of affairs and the arab muslims being greedy decided that it did not mean what it said and so denied the resolution
Your usual duck.






No my usual reply to you now when you ask for the same link to the same question 20 times a day. If you cant be bothered to read it the first time then why bother a second time
 
But between the ceding of the territory by the Ottomans and the declaration of independence there was no State and no sovereignty.
Not true. The right to sovereignty does not require a state. It belongs to the people.

That is just one of Israel's talking points to confuse the people.






No what you spout is just one of islams many nazi talking points to confuse the morons like yourself
 
But between the ceding of the territory by the Ottomans and the declaration of independence there was no State and no sovereignty.
Not true. The right to sovereignty does not require a state. It belongs to the people.

That is just one of Israel's talking points to confuse the people.
So you can confirm that sovereignty belongs to the Israeli people who established independence and self governance.

So there's no issue.
The problem is that they did it in Palestine violating the Palestinian's rights. Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others.





So you are denying the Jews rights to be palestinians so you can steal their lands and the rest of their rights ?
 
But between the ceding of the territory by the Ottomans and the declaration of independence there was no State and no sovereignty.
Not true. The right to sovereignty does not require a state. It belongs to the people.

That is just one of Israel's talking points to confuse the people.
So you can confirm that sovereignty belongs to the Israeli people who established independence and self governance.

So there's no issue.
The problem is that they did it in Palestine violating the Palestinian's rights. Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others.





When did this become actual law ? And how did the violate the Jews rights to a homeland on Jewish land ?
 
But between the ceding of the territory by the Ottomans and the declaration of independence there was no State and no sovereignty.
Not true. The right to sovereignty does not require a state. It belongs to the people.

That is just one of Israel's talking points to confuse the people.
So you can confirm that sovereignty belongs to the Israeli people who established independence and self governance.

So there's no issue.
The problem is that they did it in Palestine violating the Palestinian's rights. Nobody has the right to violate the rights of others.
Nice dodge™

As this has been addressed for you countless times, I'm disappointed that you keep cutting and pasting the same nonsense.

Your suggestion is "they" did it in your invented "country of Pal'istan". There was no such place. The geographic area of Pal'istan was an area ceded by the Ottomans to the British Mandate.

The Jewish people succeeded in self-governance and sovereignty. The Arabs-Moslems could not and still can not.

Nothing was taken away from the Arab-Moslem squatters.
Palestine is a territory defined by international borders. It was populated by a people who had legal citizenship.

You can throw all the Israeli talking points you like. It changes nothing.




When did this happen and who caused it to happen, you have failed to actually show any concrete evidence of your claims because you read things that are not there. The mandate of palestine is the only palestine that had defined borders according to your one and only link.

You can throw all the islamionazi lies and propaganda talking points you like they wont change reality and the truth
 
The Jews were living on another continent and invaded Palestine. The migration of the Europeans to Palestine was a violation of the rights of the native non-Jews, Christians and Muslims.







Which were what in 1922 when the treaty was signed giving the arab muslims 78% of palestine and the Jews 22%. Why have the arab muslims refused to abide by the international law they had enacted that Tinman posted only yesterday
 
Of course there was an invasion. The Jews were on another continent (Europe) and took over a place inhabited by non-Jews situated in Asia, a different continent. It's just logic you silly goose.






And your people the Roman Catholics took the Jews from their lands that they had inhabited for 2000 years and incarcerated them in slavery. The non Jews then invaded the land of Judea and took it by force contrary to international law, claiming it as their own. The land was then taken from the non Jews as reparations for war and handed back to the Jews as their National home in 1922 by the land then legal owners. The descendants of the Jews taken as slaves by the Roman Catholics returned to their lands under international laws and claimed them. The non Jews had no legal claims to the lands granted to the Jews at any time as their leaders had signed away the lands to the LoN as reparations of war in 1917.
 
Of course there was an invasion. The Jews were on another continent (Europe) and took over a place inhabited by non-Jews situated in Asia, a different continent. It's just logic you silly goose.
Your silly "Invasion" slogan is a hoot. It's more of the ignorance you promote. It appears that you and our friend Tinmore must cut and paste goofy slogans from the same source.
Indeed, actual history.





So which country was behind this invasion then, who planned it and set up the military aspects to enable the invasion. Show the history books that detail all this
 
Pal'istan was a territory, yes. It was administered by the British after the Ottoman Turks ceded all rights and title to the territory.
That is correct.

Palestine was a territory defined by international borders.

Britain did administer Palestine but it did not annex or otherwise claim sovereignty.

The territory was ceded to the people who were to have citizenship in their respective states. It is the citizens who have the right to sovereignty.

Look it up.






WRONG

Even your own link states it is the borders of the mandate of palestine.

It did not need to as that was the LoN remit as sovereign land owners.

Under which treaty as all the ones you produce never name palestine as a state, just a mandate under administration

I have and this is the reality leaving nothing out or ADDING ANYTHING TO IT
 

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