Montrovant
Fuzzy bears!
Again that doesnt make any sense. In order to commit a percentage of crimes whites would have to commit a specific number of crimes which would be a subset of the total crimes. I mean how can there not be a numerical value of total crimes committed yet whites still commit 69% of crimes? Its mathematically impossible to separate the 2 values. Like I said when you first asked me the question my answer was that whites should commit 0 crime. That would correlate to 0% of the crime. That would be appropriate/acceptable to me in congruence with the reasons I already gave.True. I think criminality for whites is directly attributable to either genetics or philosophy. Whites come from a land of scares resources. Blacks come from a land of plenty. When you lack (resources, melanin, positive philosophy etc) you are prone to crime and violence. At some point it becomes a genetic thing passed down like skin color. What else would make an already wealthy white person scam others out of billions? What would make whites lie about not stealing more NA land treaty after treaty? What would make whites commit criminal acts to keep Blacks from voting? They cant help it because its ingrained in their DNA or philosophy.Correct. Whites own the system so they literally have no reason to commit crimes. They should have an incredibly low crime rate. It would be a positive thing because overall the crime rate would drop significantly if whites were not committing 69% of the crime. Think about that for a moment. 69% of all crime gone. That would cut the crime rate by more than half. Dont get me confused. I dont think its possible for whites to do it. You asked what I thought would be appropriate. No I was talking about crimes committed by whites. Thats why I said whites instead of Blacks.So you want whites to be responsible for none of the crimes committed, leaving that for all other races? How would that be a positive thing? We'll ignore how completely irrational it is to think an entire race, particularly one that makes up most of the population, would not commit any of the crimes. Of course, since you brought up 28%, it seems as if you were actually talking about crimes committed by blacks rather than whites.
I would guess that economic status/financial issues are a motivation for many crimes by people of all races. However, people commit a whole lot of crimes based on things completely separate from finances.
And yet whites commit crimes just like members of any race. Perhaps that should make you rethink just what "whites own the system" actually means.
You also are having a hard time with the idea of percentages. Whites commit 69% of crimes. I asked what percentage of crimes is appropriate for whites to commit. Changing the percentage of crimes whites commit has no effect on the actual number of crimes being committed. I asked about the percentage. Let's go back to apples, since you seem to like them as an example. If there are 100 apples, and whites have 70 of them, they have 70% of the apples. If I ask what an appropriate percentage of apples for whites to have is, and you say 0, there are still 100 apples, whites just don't have any of them.
Of course if whites stopped committing crimes it would lower the total number of crimes significantly, which would be good. That wasn't the question. I didn't ask how many crimes whites should commit, but what percentage of crimes committed should appropriately be done by whites.
That makes no sense. If whites stopped committing 69% of the crime then that crime is gone from total crime. Does this make sense to you or are you claiming that other races will pick up the slack?
Apples are analogous to crime. If whites have no crime then 69 of the 100 apples are no longer there.
Well, if you want to use the same sort of arguments that anti-black racists use, have at it.
Again, I asked about what an appropriate percentage of whites committing crime would be, not about the number of crimes. It makes perfect sense. If whites commit 69% of crimes, and that is for some reason a problem, what would be a percentage of crimes that whites commit that would be appropriate? I didn't ask how many fewer crimes should be committed overall, or how many fewer whites should commit crimes, just what percentage of overall crimes being committed by whites is appropriate. If whites committed 50% of all crimes (while still being 60-75% of the population, depending on the numbers you are using) would that be appropriate? Is it appropriate for other races to commit a higher percentage of crimes than their percentage of the total population?
To once again give you an example, if there were 100 crimes committed in the US last year, and whites committed 69 of them, apparently that's a problem. So I'm asking, if there are 100 crimes committed, how many would it be acceptable for whites to have committed? Of course if you just get rid of 69 out of 100 crimes, that's good. I'm not asking that, though, because that isn't what I was replying to. I replied to a comment about whites committing 69% of crimes not being acceptable.
You are still not understanding. The comment that I responded to involved whether whites committing 69% of crimes was an acceptable number. Would it be acceptable if whites committed 50% of crimes? Would it be acceptable if whites committed 40%? Those questions don't specify the number of total crimes, just the percentage of those crimes committed by whites. If there are 2 million crimes, what is a reasonable percentage to have been committed by whites? What about if there are 1 million crimes? 100,000? Does the percentage which is acceptable change depending on the total number of crimes, and if so, how?
In other words, why is 69% too much? Not why is 3.5 million crimes committed by whites too much, but why is 69% of the total too much.