Montrovant
Fuzzy bears!
Let's try and be clear. Prior to Obergefell, the USSC had already established marriage as a fundamental right.
They had not established that "marriage" could be redefined to include sexual propensity. They certainly didn't establish racially-pure marriage was a fundamental right. You are all on record here as acknowledging we can restrict fundamental rights but it only seems to apply whenever YOU think it should. Meanwhile, we can deny others their constitutional rights on the basis that... hey, the law says so!![]()
It never backs up what it claims. Get ready for its dance to begin
'It' never backs up what it claims, huh?
Do you want me to back up the fact that the USSC had established marriage as a fundamental right prior to Obergefell? Again?