Pop23
Gold Member
My position has been clear from the beginning.
I oppose same sex sibling marriage. I oppose any family marriage. But under the constraints of rulings such as Obergfell and Windsor, I can find no sound legal reasoning to prohibit them. Especially when sex is not a qualification to marry.
You?
What sound legal reasoning existed to prohibit sibling marriage before Obergefell and Windsor which does not exist now? Keep in mind that if you argue procreation and the danger of genetic defect, it does not make sense that infertile siblings were also prevented from marrying.
You understand equal protection, Right? The 14th amendment and such?
Was this the societal safe guard that Syriously's Judge Crabb spoke of?
By Joe, I think it was.
Pity that safeguard has been lessened
That wasn't actually an answer to the question. If you are trying to say that procreation is the answer and the reason infertile siblings were prevented from marrying is in order to have them treated equally to fertile siblings, why then are there laws preventing fertile cousins from marrying but allowing infertile ones to do so, as linked to by Syriusly?
The State HAD the right to regulate how marriage was administrated I guess. I would also guess that they were borderline on if those couples were "too closely related". Oh, and no one can be more "too closely related" than siblings (other than the actual parent, cuz damn, they are intensely closely related).
Clear enough for the third time?
Now, have you found any reason why in Wisconsin, opposite sex cousins have to PROVE infertility to marry, but same sex cousins would not?
Or do you think that same sex cousins shouldn't have too? Seems incredibly stupid to make such an outlandish request. Then shouldn't the same rules apply to both couples?
Just another of the many paradoxes that Obergfell created.
Curiouser and Curiouser.
I do not see any reason same sex cousins should have to prove anything regarding fertility in Wisconsin to marry. In that instance procreation is clearly the greatest factor in the decision whether or not to allow marriage.
Should the same rules apply to both couples? I assume by both couples you mean opposite sex and same sex cousins. Yes, the same rules apply. Only couples who cannot have children together can marry if they are first cousins.
But the burdon of proof then is applied to only one set.
Don't you find that a bit odd?