XponentialChaos
Platinum Member
- Jul 25, 2018
- 28,675
- 10,520
Yes. You assume -something- explains how the dramatic decline of gun-related murders, concurrent with a wholesale in the number of guns does not negate your argument.I already explained the drop. I think it's due to the societal norms that have changed over time, either due to law enforcement or cultural changes. We may be able to find data for that, but in general, I think that statement would be difficult to prove or disprove.
That is -you- cannot explain away something that negates your premise, and you know it.
Thus
Your premise, negated..
You mean, when you take away the inconvenient fact the number of guns has increased while the number of homicides has decreased, more guns = more gun homicides.Comparing gun owner percentage to gun-related homicides without the "noise" of societal changes over time, there is a distinct upward correlation. More guns = more deaths.
Correlation does not imply causation. When dealing with multiple variables, one can come up with any ridiculous argument.
I can just as easily say that gun deaths have decreased by x percent since the movie Lion King came out. Therefore, Lion King reduces deaths. But just like the argument you're making, there is a high possibility of an extraneous variable here - in this case time. To eliminate that possibility, we remove the extraneous variable to better compare the two things that we are truly comparing.
That's what I'm doing. And in doing so, there is a moderate correlation. I realize that you don't want to talk about this because it counters your argument.