Rustic
Diamond Member
- Oct 3, 2015
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- #621
LolOur homicide rate is 4-5x higher than countries with strong gun control. Lots of lives to be saved.LolActually, the technology wasn't understood starting in 1859 when the new "Wonder Weapons" began making themselves felt in numbers. The South had a problem trying to fight a war against the North with old style rifles dating back to the Revolutionary war. Meanwhile, the North started introducing the new rolling block spencers and Hawkins. I firmly believe if the South was equally armed that the South would have kicked the North Butts until about 1867 when the North would have take just about any peace settlement that the south would have offered within reason.
What came out of the Civil was was the introduction of the Walker Colt, and the Remington version for the Civil war. During the Civil war many were converted to cartridge models. These were kept by the exiting troops of both sides and were carried enmass to the west. In just a few short years (1871) the first gun regulations had to be established in Western Cities like Dallas, Tombstone, Wichita, Dodge and more. Long Guns and Shotguns weren't causing the problems. It was the newly addition of the revolver that was causing all the problems and the towns just got sick and tired of having their town shot to pieces and their citizens mowed down by errant shots. Proving that we CAN have something called "Too many guns". In this case, too many of one type of gun.
Were they wrong starting in 1871? What other options were left to them? And don't bring up the Earps and Tombstone. Had the same situation happened in Dallas in the same time, the Dallas Marshal (Police) all would have just shot them on site in the back with no warning.
By the time the Spanish American War came about, Artillery and automatic weapons were introduced. And that was a prelude to WWI. The United States Government and Governors came to the realization that the 2nd amendment no longer could protect the United States from Foreign invaders. So changes had to be made with the States Organized Militias (Guards) and the Federal Military hence the National Guard Act of 1916 put into affect in 1917. In 1878, the Posse Comitatus Act was created to limit the President using Federal Forces in the confines of the United States. Then there were changes to the Uniform Code of Military Justice and Doctrines (The Military Constitution) that limits the Federal Forces inside the US even further. All of this means the first half of the 2nd amendment is pretty much null and void.
So the only question is, the last half. Why was it written like that? It borrowed heavily from various English doctrines starting in 1266. The right to bear arms. In 1266, the only arms other than those attached to the shoulder were provided by rich lords, barons and kings to it's armies. It's not that the common man could not "Bear" them, they couldn't afford them. When a commoner became a Soldier, he was provided a sword. If he lived to the end of the war, he went home and took his sword with him. He didn't keep his sword as a sword. He recast it to something he could use as a farming tool. Hence the phrase "Swords to Plowshares". It's lost it's original meaning and means something else today. But it means resmelting the sword to something useful like a plow share. In 1266 steel wasn't common. Wars didn't happen over night. Sometimes it took generations to get a really good one going. Unless your name was Napoleon. Luckily, even with Napoleon, it took generations to get that far into anyone elses territory like England or Russia which enabled them time to counter it in time. Napoleon was a master of the Supply lines and could get further than any other medieval leader of his time. But even Napoleon failed and their has never been anywhere near as great a military leader as him nor probably never will be. There was one hell of a lot of swords to plowshares.
The meaning of The right to Bear Arms in 1266 and then in the 1600 and then in the 1700 has a completely different meaning that it has today. Unless the Soldier is allowed to take his weapons home and repurpose them to something useful in feeding the family like smelting that AR down then the meaning from the 1200 through the 1600s have no meaning.
In the 1700s, the meaning did change but the weapons of the individual soldier were the same weapons that were primarily used in putting meat on the table and protecting the home and family against intruders. Yes, Canons were legal but only the rich owned canons. You may have one at a large settlement paid for by a rich benefactor. When the Revolutionary Army went to war, they took charge of those canons. And, if possible, returned them to their lawful owners afterwards. So let's leave canons out of this discussion. If you had a piece of junk for a musket, Washington would issue you a brand new Rifle far better than the British were using. And you took it home when you went home. Many in the newly formed Congress went ape over that but Washington won out. The small number of Federal Troops allowed after the War, the civilian population was actually better armed than they were. This was done for fear of the US ever getting a Tyrant who militarily takes over the United States and makes it into a Kingdom. Those were the reasons for the 2nd amendment.
We are long past the need of the way the 2nd amendment is written today. Oh, we still need a 2nd amendment but it needs to be updated. The fact remains, even if a President were to completely take over the Federal Government (by neutralizing Congress, see Washington today and stacking the Supreme Court with his Followers that will support only his policies, scary ain't it) We have provisions built in to prevent the total takeover. We have the Constitution of the United States, House Oversight, Military UCMJ and Doctrines built in to prevent that from happening. Mussolini got in power doing exactly the same things but Italy didn't have those things built in.
But we have one other thing. We have enough people that would stand up and fight (even without firearms) that the Federal Government could never defeat them. Yah, I know, some of you rightwingnutjobs seem to think you could win a Revolution and kill all the left. You wouldn't accomplish it. Anymore than the Feds could defeat the civilian populance in an uprising if they attacked the masses. When you are dealing with over 300 million people, you can't use force to defeat them.
That being said, we do need a 2nd amendment but it needs to be updated.
Your forgetting, ARs and the like are used in an Insignificant amount violence... we have much bigger fish to fry...
But when they are used, the body count is high. No properly dressed mass shooter ever will leave the house dressed without one or two of them with more than a few 30 round mags.
Moron.....the primary choice for mass pubic shooters is the pistol, usually more than one. Virginia Tech.....32 killed, Luby's cafe, 24 killed.....two pistols in each attack...you moron.
And just from Japan...33 killed in an arson attack 33 injured....
Nice, France, 86 killed with a rental truck, over 435 injured....
You don't know what you are talking about.
If any of thes epeople could magically stop mass shootings there would be no effect on the national murder rate whatsoever
Na, not really