Silhouette
Gold Member
- Jul 15, 2013
- 25,815
- 1,938
- Thread starter
- #21
As for the existence of the 'gay gene', you're a geneticist now? Remember, Sil.....you have no clue what you're talking about. Not only the law, not on genetics. So what possible value do your assurances on either the law or genetics have? Its like asking a blind person to pontificate on the color orange.
You don't know how to follow links, do you? Did you notice that after I said the gay gene was bullshit I gave two links: One to Johns Hopkins, the other to a site with dozens of links to dozens of studies disproving the "gay gene" crapola? Don't know how to move your cursor over the links and click?
Sil, your links don't say what you do. Remember when you told us about the 'implied beneficiaries' outlined in the Infancy Doctrine and included a link.........to a page that never used the terms 'implied', 'beneficiary' or 'implied beneficary'?
You have no idea what you're talking about. No marriage, in the history of our nation, has ever been voided because of the 'infancy doctrine'. Its *employment contract law*. It has nothing to do with marriage. As demonstrated by the perfect record of failure of your latest in literally *dozens* of threads and thousands of pages of pseudo-legal gibberish.
Yes, they do. And the only way for anyone to know which of us is lying is for people to click them and read them. Agreed?