If in fact Clinton was used to make overtures to Sestak, it only reinforces just how much "All-In" as it were, that the Obama White House was trying to manipulate the election outcome.
Rahm was right in the thick of it - and therefore, must have been acting with the express consent of the president.
If Rahm was not acting under the direction of the president, we then have a White House acting out of its own individuals motivations, and the president reduced to a mere teleprompted voice over.
So which is it?
Rahm was right in the thick of it - and therefore, must have been acting with the express consent of the president.
If Rahm was not acting under the direction of the president, we then have a White House acting out of its own individuals motivations, and the president reduced to a mere teleprompted voice over.
So which is it?