P F Tinmore
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- Dec 6, 2009
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How does that refute my post?RE: Palestine Today
⁜→ P F Tinmore, et al,
I would not dare to try and confuse the issue.
(COMMENT)The argument completely jumps over the relevant point that the Arab Palestinians were not a party to the Treaty and answers the question:
◈ By what right does a non-party to an agreement have over the interpretation and enforcement of an independent treaty to which other soveriegnties are enjoined?You are trying to confuse the issue. As I have posted before, a treaty is void if it conflicts with international law. On the flip side, treaties define how international law applies to a certain circumstance. The treaty does not have to name anybody. It merely defines how laws are universally applied to everyone in that circumstance.
In the laws against speeding, my name is nowhere to be found. Does that mean that they do not apply to me?
A law relative to "speeding" is an actually enforced by a piece of legislation relative to jurisdiction and enacted by a governing body. (It does not need your name to be applicable.) Whereas treaties and conventions must a "consent to be bound" by the parties involved.
A "Treaty" or "Convention" is an agreement concluded between States in written form and governed by international law, whether embodied in a single instrument or in two or more related instruments and whatever its particular designation (Article 2 of the Vienna Convention). But it must also be understood that there are agreements concluded between entities that are outside the Vienna Convention.
To my knowledge, → there is no conflict in law relative to our discussion. Just as laws evolve or can be changed in almost every country [(most things change over time)(∆t)] your basic interpretation and implication that agreements between states cannot be altered, dissolved or replaced → is not correct.
Most Respectfully,
R