This is a bottom line question for our democracy: Should the Legislative Branch have veto authority over Presidential elections? This actually occurred after the Hayes-Tilden election of 1876, when the Republican House refused to accept the election of the Democrat Tilden.
Modernly, the Democratic House has been trying to do the same thing regarding the 2016 election. Is this a good thing for our democracy? Does the Constitution really confer this type of veto authority on the Legislative Branch?
Modernly, the Democratic House has been trying to do the same thing regarding the 2016 election. Is this a good thing for our democracy? Does the Constitution really confer this type of veto authority on the Legislative Branch?