P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
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So compile a list of Jewish owners and work from there.Because it is his.If Israel has placed itself into that situation, I am not the one to cry about it.
Nice duck.
WHY does the person want THAT particular orange grove? Answer the questions.![]()
It's a myth that peasants owned much land, by the end of 19th century majority of them was already dispossessed by Bedouins and/or in debt to a number of major landowners. For example in Nablus by the end of the 18th century Ottomans installed dominant clans from Syria to weaken independence that resulted in a policy of allotting a piece of land for 2 years only for each family, before changing hands. During the Mandate many were relocated to other lands under agreement and ALREADY received compensation.
I'm not saying no fallah owned a piece of land - but it was unusual for their status.Many large landowners were people from Cairo, Damascus, Kuwait etc. To stretch that into a claim that "land inhabited and worked by Palestinian Arabs belonged to them" is a simplistic deception.
Like in a case one receives a loan from a bank. The bank is sold to a new owner, but the customer with the loan claims the whole capital of the bank was his from the beginning.
https://www.wordfromjerusalem.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/11/the-case-for-israel-appendix2.pdfIt is a myth that they did not. Most of the cities, towns, and villages pre date the Ottoman Empire. The land was ceased after the conquest. That land was ceded back to Palestine after WWI. That land was then returned to the original owners. Britain, the UN, and a private organization have been compiling these transfers from records.It's a myth that peasants owned much land,
Most of the villages and towns predate Arab Muslim conquest as well...and many bear Jewish names SO??
Sole possession is not a proof. Villages were abandoned during Bedouin raids later to be inhabited by new migrants, same nomad Bedouins with their slaves and later Arab labor migrants from all continents.