Who Are The Palestinains?

I never said anything about their rights. But you always talk about post war treaties creating Palestine. Palestine the what??
I'm not trying to get you to say so something so I can use it against you. I'm just asking a question.

OK,here is the scenario as I see it. If there is something that you disagree with, please bring it to my attention.

Palestine was part of the Ottoman Empire.

Britain occupied the territory in 1917.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the Ottoman Empire was honored as Palestine’s international border with Egypt.

The international border between Palestine and Syria/Lebanon was defined in 1920.

Britain recommended that Palestine and Transjordan be divided into two states. The League of Nations accepted that proposal defining Palestine’s eastern international border in 1922.

Those Turkish citizens who normally lived inside that defined territory would become Palestinian nationals and citizens of Palestine.

However none of this could be implemented as long as Palestine was under Turkish sovereignty. The Treaty of Lausanne in 1924 released Palestine, and all of the other newly created states, from Turkish sovereignty.

As a nation of people inside a defined territory the Palestinians have the right to self determination without external interference, the right to independence and sovereignty, and the right to territorial integrity. Anything that happened since then that violates those legal rights is a violation of international law.


Palestine the undefined area was part of the ottoman empire

Britain took the territory in 1917 during WW1 and evicted the axis powers.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the ottoman empire was accepted as the border.

The borders between the FRENCH MANDATED OF PALESTINE Syria/ Lebanon and the BRITISH MANDATE OF PALESTINE were set in 1920

The eastern border of trans Jordan was set in 1922

Those Turkish citizens who lived in the mandated lands of Palestine had the right to accept citizenship of the mandated lands they lived in. Becoming French Palestinian citizens or British Palestinian citizens.

The treaty of Lausanne was the hand over of the reparations for WW1 by the ottomans and the land became mandated LoN land. This included the already formed nations of Iraq, Syria and trans Jordan that were still subject to mandate control.

There was no nation of people to receive those rights as the land was still under mandate, and the Jews declared their intention to create the nation of Israel on the land already set aside by the LEGAL OWNERS for that purpose. It was not until 1988 that the last piece of the mandated land was finally taken over and the mandate could end.

Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.
 
OK,here is the scenario as I see it. If there is something that you disagree with, please bring it to my attention.

Palestine was part of the Ottoman Empire.

Britain occupied the territory in 1917.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the Ottoman Empire was honored as Palestine’s international border with Egypt.

The international border between Palestine and Syria/Lebanon was defined in 1920.

Britain recommended that Palestine and Transjordan be divided into two states. The League of Nations accepted that proposal defining Palestine’s eastern international border in 1922.

Those Turkish citizens who normally lived inside that defined territory would become Palestinian nationals and citizens of Palestine.

However none of this could be implemented as long as Palestine was under Turkish sovereignty. The Treaty of Lausanne in 1924 released Palestine, and all of the other newly created states, from Turkish sovereignty.

As a nation of people inside a defined territory the Palestinians have the right to self determination without external interference, the right to independence and sovereignty, and the right to territorial integrity. Anything that happened since then that violates those legal rights is a violation of international law.


Palestine the undefined area was part of the ottoman empire

Britain took the territory in 1917 during WW1 and evicted the axis powers.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the ottoman empire was accepted as the border.

The borders between the FRENCH MANDATED OF PALESTINE Syria/ Lebanon and the BRITISH MANDATE OF PALESTINE were set in 1920

The eastern border of trans Jordan was set in 1922

Those Turkish citizens who lived in the mandated lands of Palestine had the right to accept citizenship of the mandated lands they lived in. Becoming French Palestinian citizens or British Palestinian citizens.

The treaty of Lausanne was the hand over of the reparations for WW1 by the ottomans and the land became mandated LoN land. This included the already formed nations of Iraq, Syria and trans Jordan that were still subject to mandate control.

There was no nation of people to receive those rights as the land was still under mandate, and the Jews declared their intention to create the nation of Israel on the land already set aside by the LEGAL OWNERS for that purpose. It was not until 1988 that the last piece of the mandated land was finally taken over and the mandate could end.

Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.
To late, Tinmore. That ship sailed already. A lot of people agree and sympathize with you but shoulda, woulda and coulda have gone the way of the hula hoop and the horse drawn carriage. Que sera, sera.
 
OK,here is the scenario as I see it. If there is something that you disagree with, please bring it to my attention.

Palestine was part of the Ottoman Empire.

Britain occupied the territory in 1917.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the Ottoman Empire was honored as Palestine’s international border with Egypt.

The international border between Palestine and Syria/Lebanon was defined in 1920.

Britain recommended that Palestine and Transjordan be divided into two states. The League of Nations accepted that proposal defining Palestine’s eastern international border in 1922.

Those Turkish citizens who normally lived inside that defined territory would become Palestinian nationals and citizens of Palestine.

However none of this could be implemented as long as Palestine was under Turkish sovereignty. The Treaty of Lausanne in 1924 released Palestine, and all of the other newly created states, from Turkish sovereignty.

As a nation of people inside a defined territory the Palestinians have the right to self determination without external interference, the right to independence and sovereignty, and the right to territorial integrity. Anything that happened since then that violates those legal rights is a violation of international law.


Palestine the undefined area was part of the ottoman empire

Britain took the territory in 1917 during WW1 and evicted the axis powers.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the ottoman empire was accepted as the border.

The borders between the FRENCH MANDATED OF PALESTINE Syria/ Lebanon and the BRITISH MANDATE OF PALESTINE were set in 1920

The eastern border of trans Jordan was set in 1922

Those Turkish citizens who lived in the mandated lands of Palestine had the right to accept citizenship of the mandated lands they lived in. Becoming French Palestinian citizens or British Palestinian citizens.

The treaty of Lausanne was the hand over of the reparations for WW1 by the ottomans and the land became mandated LoN land. This included the already formed nations of Iraq, Syria and trans Jordan that were still subject to mandate control.

There was no nation of people to receive those rights as the land was still under mandate, and the Jews declared their intention to create the nation of Israel on the land already set aside by the LEGAL OWNERS for that purpose. It was not until 1988 that the last piece of the mandated land was finally taken over and the mandate could end.

Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.




Not according to the treaties that you like to quote, many of the "borders" were those of other nations like Egypt, Syria, Lebanon and Transjordan.
The separate mandates did have borders, and were split into three distinct areas of control. The French, British and Russian mandates.
Your comment is one of those pieces of misinformation as the mandate's were assigned to nations to manage and control. The mandate did not own any land but the LoN did under the treaty with Ottoman Turkey. This land was already promised to arabs ( 85% of the available land ) and Jews ( 15% of the available land) By the end of the mandate the Jews were reduced to being granted less than 3% of the available land, and that mostly infertile desert. The separate mandates of Palestine are shown in this map drawn up at San Remo

0113-Top-San-Remo-map.jpg


This also shows the "borders" attributed to Palestine under the various treaties and cover more land area than the Sanjuks of Jerusalem, Balqa and Acre as you seem to think
 
Palestine the undefined area was part of the ottoman empire

Britain took the territory in 1917 during WW1 and evicted the axis powers.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the ottoman empire was accepted as the border.

The borders between the FRENCH MANDATED OF PALESTINE Syria/ Lebanon and the BRITISH MANDATE OF PALESTINE were set in 1920

The eastern border of trans Jordan was set in 1922

Those Turkish citizens who lived in the mandated lands of Palestine had the right to accept citizenship of the mandated lands they lived in. Becoming French Palestinian citizens or British Palestinian citizens.

The treaty of Lausanne was the hand over of the reparations for WW1 by the ottomans and the land became mandated LoN land. This included the already formed nations of Iraq, Syria and trans Jordan that were still subject to mandate control.

There was no nation of people to receive those rights as the land was still under mandate, and the Jews declared their intention to create the nation of Israel on the land already set aside by the LEGAL OWNERS for that purpose. It was not until 1988 that the last piece of the mandated land was finally taken over and the mandate could end.

Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.

Not according to the treaties that you like to quote, many of the "borders" were those of other nations like Egypt, Syria, Lebanon and Transjordan.
The separate mandates did have borders, and were split into three distinct areas of control. The French, British and Russian mandates.
Your comment is one of those pieces of misinformation as the mandate's were assigned to nations to manage and control. The mandate did not own any land but the LoN did under the treaty with Ottoman Turkey. This land was already promised to arabs ( 85% of the available land ) and Jews ( 15% of the available land) By the end of the mandate the Jews were reduced to being granted less than 3% of the available land, and that mostly infertile desert. The separate mandates of Palestine are shown in this map drawn up at San Remo

0113-Top-San-Remo-map.jpg


This also shows the "borders" attributed to Palestine under the various treaties and cover more land area than the Sanjuks of Jerusalem, Balqa and Acre as you seem to think

Can you show, specifically, where I am incorrect. Not just throwing out a bunch of stuff.
 
Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.

Not according to the treaties that you like to quote, many of the "borders" were those of other nations like Egypt, Syria, Lebanon and Transjordan.
The separate mandates did have borders, and were split into three distinct areas of control. The French, British and Russian mandates.
Your comment is one of those pieces of misinformation as the mandate's were assigned to nations to manage and control. The mandate did not own any land but the LoN did under the treaty with Ottoman Turkey. This land was already promised to arabs ( 85% of the available land ) and Jews ( 15% of the available land) By the end of the mandate the Jews were reduced to being granted less than 3% of the available land, and that mostly infertile desert. The separate mandates of Palestine are shown in this map drawn up at San Remo

0113-Top-San-Remo-map.jpg


This also shows the "borders" attributed to Palestine under the various treaties and cover more land area than the Sanjuks of Jerusalem, Balqa and Acre as you seem to think

Can you show, specifically, where I am incorrect. Not just throwing out a bunch of stuff.



Your constant referencing the Palestinian international borders being that of modern day Palestine and not the real borders of Palestine as it was in 1920. The treaties were put in place to stop the royal houses getting upset over their acquisition of Syria and Transjordan, it had nothing to do with the arab muslims in modern day Palestine.
 
Not according to the treaties that you like to quote, many of the "borders" were those of other nations like Egypt, Syria, Lebanon and Transjordan.
The separate mandates did have borders, and were split into three distinct areas of control. The French, British and Russian mandates.
Your comment is one of those pieces of misinformation as the mandate's were assigned to nations to manage and control. The mandate did not own any land but the LoN did under the treaty with Ottoman Turkey. This land was already promised to arabs ( 85% of the available land ) and Jews ( 15% of the available land) By the end of the mandate the Jews were reduced to being granted less than 3% of the available land, and that mostly infertile desert. The separate mandates of Palestine are shown in this map drawn up at San Remo

0113-Top-San-Remo-map.jpg


This also shows the "borders" attributed to Palestine under the various treaties and cover more land area than the Sanjuks of Jerusalem, Balqa and Acre as you seem to think

Can you show, specifically, where I am incorrect. Not just throwing out a bunch of stuff.



Your constant referencing the Palestinian international borders being that of modern day Palestine and not the real borders of Palestine as it was in 1920. The treaties were put in place to stop the royal houses getting upset over their acquisition of Syria and Transjordan, it had nothing to do with the arab muslims in modern day Palestine.

I reference Palestine's international borders as they were finalized in 1922 and came into affect in 1924.

These borders were referenced in the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Negotiating a change in these borders is a final status issue in the current peace process.
 
Can you show, specifically, where I am incorrect. Not just throwing out a bunch of stuff.



Your constant referencing the Palestinian international borders being that of modern day Palestine and not the real borders of Palestine as it was in 1920. The treaties were put in place to stop the royal houses getting upset over their acquisition of Syria and Transjordan, it had nothing to do with the arab muslims in modern day Palestine.

I reference Palestine's international borders as they were finalized in 1922 and came into affect in 1924.

These borders were referenced in the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Negotiating a change in these borders is a final status issue in the current peace process.
Will Palestine be as big as Texas or Central Park in NYC?
 
OK,here is the scenario as I see it. If there is something that you disagree with, please bring it to my attention.

Palestine was part of the Ottoman Empire.

Britain occupied the territory in 1917.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the Ottoman Empire was honored as Palestine’s international border with Egypt.

The international border between Palestine and Syria/Lebanon was defined in 1920.

Britain recommended that Palestine and Transjordan be divided into two states. The League of Nations accepted that proposal defining Palestine’s eastern international border in 1922.

Those Turkish citizens who normally lived inside that defined territory would become Palestinian nationals and citizens of Palestine.

However none of this could be implemented as long as Palestine was under Turkish sovereignty. The Treaty of Lausanne in 1924 released Palestine, and all of the other newly created states, from Turkish sovereignty.

As a nation of people inside a defined territory the Palestinians have the right to self determination without external interference, the right to independence and sovereignty, and the right to territorial integrity. Anything that happened since then that violates those legal rights is a violation of international law.


Palestine the undefined area was part of the ottoman empire

Britain took the territory in 1917 during WW1 and evicted the axis powers.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the ottoman empire was accepted as the border.

The borders between the FRENCH MANDATED OF PALESTINE Syria/ Lebanon and the BRITISH MANDATE OF PALESTINE were set in 1920

The eastern border of trans Jordan was set in 1922

Those Turkish citizens who lived in the mandated lands of Palestine had the right to accept citizenship of the mandated lands they lived in. Becoming French Palestinian citizens or British Palestinian citizens.

The treaty of Lausanne was the hand over of the reparations for WW1 by the ottomans and the land became mandated LoN land. This included the already formed nations of Iraq, Syria and trans Jordan that were still subject to mandate control.

There was no nation of people to receive those rights as the land was still under mandate, and the Jews declared their intention to create the nation of Israel on the land already set aside by the LEGAL OWNERS for that purpose. It was not until 1988 that the last piece of the mandated land was finally taken over and the mandate could end.

Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.

'To bring it to Independence'

Which they rejected in 1947.
 
Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.

Not according to the treaties that you like to quote, many of the "borders" were those of other nations like Egypt, Syria, Lebanon and Transjordan.
The separate mandates did have borders, and were split into three distinct areas of control. The French, British and Russian mandates.
Your comment is one of those pieces of misinformation as the mandate's were assigned to nations to manage and control. The mandate did not own any land but the LoN did under the treaty with Ottoman Turkey. This land was already promised to arabs ( 85% of the available land ) and Jews ( 15% of the available land) By the end of the mandate the Jews were reduced to being granted less than 3% of the available land, and that mostly infertile desert. The separate mandates of Palestine are shown in this map drawn up at San Remo

0113-Top-San-Remo-map.jpg


This also shows the "borders" attributed to Palestine under the various treaties and cover more land area than the Sanjuks of Jerusalem, Balqa and Acre as you seem to think

Can you show, specifically, where I am incorrect. Not just throwing out a bunch of stuff.
Denial is not a river in Egypt.
 
Can you show, specifically, where I am incorrect. Not just throwing out a bunch of stuff.



Your constant referencing the Palestinian international borders being that of modern day Palestine and not the real borders of Palestine as it was in 1920. The treaties were put in place to stop the royal houses getting upset over their acquisition of Syria and Transjordan, it had nothing to do with the arab muslims in modern day Palestine.

I reference Palestine's international borders as they were finalized in 1922 and came into affect in 1924.

These borders were referenced in the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Negotiating a change in these borders is a final status issue in the current peace process.
There ya go, here is your Palestine on two different days.

1920:
1920-boundaryconventionmap.jpg


After Arab whining, and creation of an Arab Palestine aka Jordan in 1922:

truncatedmap.jpg
 
Your constant referencing the Palestinian international borders being that of modern day Palestine and not the real borders of Palestine as it was in 1920. The treaties were put in place to stop the royal houses getting upset over their acquisition of Syria and Transjordan, it had nothing to do with the arab muslims in modern day Palestine.

I reference Palestine's international borders as they were finalized in 1922 and came into affect in 1924.

These borders were referenced in the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Negotiating a change in these borders is a final status issue in the current peace process.
Will Palestine be as big as Texas or Central Park in NYC?
The way these Arabs are going there won't be any Palestine. There will be a Islamic Khalifate of Gaza, led by Hamas terrorist animals, and Israel will be annexing the West Bank. Sounds like a game plan to me. :clap2:
 
Tinmore, you are wrong again a out the Mandate being assigned to Palestine.
I used to think the same thing. But Palestine=Mandate and Mandate=Palestine.

Look at the name of the birthplace of the people born there during that time. It says Mandatory Palestine, not Palestine.
 
And BTW, I am not an "Israeli-kiss-ass". I'm Israeli. My stand is with patriotism, not ass-kissing.

Get the logic?
You are a patriot to fascism and cruelty.

In contrast, I am also a patriot to my country. However, the difference between you and me, is that I am embarrassed and outraged by my country's actions in Iraq and Afghanistan and I am actively protesting our involvement in those country's, because our actions are not the American way.

You, apparently, feel treating the Palestinian's, like the Nazis treated the Jews, IS the Israeli way?

Yeah we are so awful.

We expell Jews from their houses while the Arab nomads steal our Negev land under permossion.

We let them wave their stupid flag in our cities.

We let them sit in our government.

We give them jobs.

We take care of their babies in our hospitals.

We give organizations the ability to care for them.

We let them sue us in courts even though they're enemies.

What NAZIS we are.


Go fuck yourself.

Seriously

standing-ovation.gif
 
Palestine the undefined area was part of the ottoman empire

Britain took the territory in 1917 during WW1 and evicted the axis powers.

The 1906 border between Egypt and the ottoman empire was accepted as the border.

The borders between the FRENCH MANDATED OF PALESTINE Syria/ Lebanon and the BRITISH MANDATE OF PALESTINE were set in 1920

The eastern border of trans Jordan was set in 1922

Those Turkish citizens who lived in the mandated lands of Palestine had the right to accept citizenship of the mandated lands they lived in. Becoming French Palestinian citizens or British Palestinian citizens.

The treaty of Lausanne was the hand over of the reparations for WW1 by the ottomans and the land became mandated LoN land. This included the already formed nations of Iraq, Syria and trans Jordan that were still subject to mandate control.

There was no nation of people to receive those rights as the land was still under mandate, and the Jews declared their intention to create the nation of Israel on the land already set aside by the LEGAL OWNERS for that purpose. It was not until 1988 that the last piece of the mandated land was finally taken over and the mandate could end.

Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.

'To bring it to Independence'

Which they rejected in 1947.

No they didn't.
 
Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.

'To bring it to Independence'

Which they rejected in 1947.

No they didn't.
No? Then it went into effect. Learn something new every day. Good on you, Tinmore.
 
Tinmore, you are wrong again a out the Mandate being assigned to Palestine.
I used to think the same thing. But Palestine=Mandate and Mandate=Palestine.

Look at the name of the birthplace of the people born there during that time. It says Mandatory Palestine, not Palestine.

Then why did the UN armistice agreements (almost a year after the end of the mandate) say that Palestine was still there.

And a 1974 UN resolution said that Palestine was still there.

Do you have a link to your claim?
 
Can you show, specifically, where I am incorrect. Not just throwing out a bunch of stuff.



Your constant referencing the Palestinian international borders being that of modern day Palestine and not the real borders of Palestine as it was in 1920. The treaties were put in place to stop the royal houses getting upset over their acquisition of Syria and Transjordan, it had nothing to do with the arab muslims in modern day Palestine.

I reference Palestine's international borders as they were finalized in 1922 and came into affect in 1924.

These borders were referenced in the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Negotiating a change in these borders is a final status issue in the current peace process.

Mandate borders are not national boarders. Palestine was not a state. All the mandates were divided up into separate states. The offer of a palestinian state was refused and when the mandate ended war was declared. Jordan and egypt became occupiers and they never tried to create a state for the palestinians, though Jordan did offer them citizenship as jordanians, which they refused and tried to over throw the government, but failed. They tried again with Lebanon and failed. Most recently the MB fiasco in egypt.

Syria still consider the whole region theirs, as part of a greater syrian empire, including parts of turkey and iraq. Borders have always be fluid and changing over time by who controls the land. For some it is where they build a wall and man forts to defend it.

There is no state, was no state, till palestinians are ready to negotiate with Israel and accept compromises to their demands. For Israel their security, now and in the future, is utmost.
 
Palestine was a land defined by international borders. It had a native population who were citizens of Palestine.

The mandate owned no land and had no borders of its own. It held the land in trust while "rendering of administrative advice and assistance by a Mandatory until such time as they are able to stand alone." ~ LoN covanent

There has been a lot of misinformation about the mandate but it was assigned to Palestine to bring it to independence.

'To bring it to Independence'

Which they rejected in 1947.

No they didn't.

>>While the Jewish community accepted the 1937 and 1947 partition plans, the Palestinian Arab leadership, dominated by the Husseini family, rejected both plans categorically. Indeed, most Palestinians turned down the 1937 design, even though it designated only 20 percent of Palestine to the proposed Jewish state. Furthermore, the Palestinian leadership even rejected the 1939 British White Paper, which had promised them an independent state within ten years while limiting Jewish immigration and turning the Jews into a minority in an Arab Palestinian state.<<

How do you not know that?
 
Tinmore, you are wrong again a out the Mandate being assigned to Palestine.
I used to think the same thing. But Palestine=Mandate and Mandate=Palestine.

Look at the name of the birthplace of the people born there during that time. It says Mandatory Palestine, not Palestine.

Then why did the UN armistice agreements (almost a year after the end of the mandate) say that Palestine was still there.

And a 1974 UN resolution said that Palestine was still there.

Do you have a link to your claim?

I used to think like you, but then Rocco , on several occasions, proved otherwise . I don't remember the links he used, I will try to look it up.

BTW, do you have a map of Palestine from 1949?
 

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