martybegan
Diamond Member
- Apr 5, 2010
- 82,901
- 34,276
Basing a belief on scripture does not automatically somehow sanctify and take away any spite underlying it.
Is there any evidence of malice or spite in the case of the baker? Does not baking a cake lower itself to malice or spite automatically?
Sea's approach would be tit for tat, and against a group of people, not the people in question, thus fitting the accusation of spite.
I think the baker's action is taken in spite. He says his personal beliefs prevent him from participating, but that is really tripe. He's saying his cakes are for straights only. He's not participating in a wedding by baking a cake, he's serving mammon. If his religious beliefs are so effing compromised, he can donate his profit to a charity of his choice.
And yes, either enforcing a public accomodations law or boycotting the baker in response to refusing to bake the cake is a spiteful act.
How is it in spite? if he were to agree then not deliver, or intentionally screw the cake up, THAT would be in spite. As for the whole donating thing, isn't it just easier to leave him the hell alone and said couple spend another 1/2 hour or so finding and going to another baker?