g5000
Diamond Member
- Nov 26, 2011
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What we are saying is :
1- There was no need to wipe out 620,000 Americans when slavery was on its way out
2- There was no need to create the precedent that DC could dictate to the states and violate their sovereignty.
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The idea slavery was on the way out is entirely false.
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Great Britain, Cuba, Brazil, and the Congo ended slavery peacefully in the nineteenth century by real statesmen in those countries.
"Some people have objected that the United States couldn't have bought the freedom of all the slaves, because that would have cost too much," Powell writes. "But buying the freedom of the slaves was not more expensive than war. Nothing is more costly than war!" In fact, the North's financial costs of war alone would have been enough to purchase the freedom of all the slaves, and then ended slavery legally and constitutionally.
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So we should have taken a policy of appeasement of slaveholders? Really?
This also assumes the South would have gladly sold their slaves and then gone into the fields to do what they considered ****** work. I don't think so!
Alexis de Toqueville, Democracy in America, 1832:
Upon the left bank of the Ohio labor is confounded with the idea of slavery, while upon the right bank it is identifies with that of prosperity and improvement; on the one side it is degraded, on the other it is honored. On the former territory no white laborers can be found, for they would be afraid of assimilating themselves to the Negroes; all the work is done by slaves; on the latter no one is idle, for the white population extend their activity and intelligence to every kind of employment. Thus the men whose task it is to cultivate the rich soil of Kentucky are ignorant and apathetic, while those who are active and enlightened either do nothing or pass over into Ohio, where they may work without shame.
Tocqueville: Book I Chapter 18
Even after we abolished slavery, the South still kept blacks in bondage well into the 20th century.
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