Lonestar_logic
Republic of Texas
- May 13, 2009
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Thank you Professor. But I want to spend my money and not just get Bibles that are translated into Chinese.
Did you check the bookstore at Biblegateway?
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Thank you Professor. But I want to spend my money and not just get Bibles that are translated into Chinese.
And that has what to do with translations?It's wrong of course.
Most of the jews who take Torah learning seriously and have studied, study the Torah in Hebrew. They don't need translations.
And you never had competing high places either or wicked kings like Manasseh?
You never had idolatry so everyone did what was right?
And that has what to do with translations?It's wrong of course.
Most of the jews who take Torah learning seriously and have studied, study the Torah in Hebrew. They don't need translations.
And you never had competing high places either or wicked kings like Manasseh?
You never had idolatry so everyone did what was right?
Thank you Professor. But I want to spend my money and not just get Bibles that are translated into Chinese.
Did you check the bookstore at Biblegateway?
The Torah says nothing about a virgin giving birth. Christians rewrote young maiden to virgin. Almah is a young maiden. Betulah is a virgin.
-p, 145, Evidence That Demands A Verdict (Historical Evidences For The Christian Faith) Volume I, Josh McDowell"Virgin is denoted by two words in Hebrew:
1. bethulah - proper meaning denotes a virgin maiden. (Genesis 24:16; Leviticus 21:13; Deuteronomy 22:14,23,28; Judges 11:37; I Kings 1:2) Joel 1:8 is, according to Unger, not an exception because it 'refers to the loss of one betrothed, not married.'
2. almah (veiled)-young woman of marriageable age. This is the word used in Isaiah 7:14. 'The Holy Spirit through Isaiah did not use bethulah, because both the ideas of virginity and marriageable age had to be combined in one word to meet the immediate historical situation and the prophetic aspect centering in a virgin-born Messiah." 28/1159
Blue Letter Bible - LexiconLexicon Results Strong's H5959 - `almah עַלְמָה
1.virgin, young woman
1. of marriageable age
2. maid or newly married
"There is no instance where it can be proved that 'almâ designates a young woman who is not a virgin. The fact of virginity is obvious in Gen 24:43 where 'almâ is used of one who was being sought as a bride for Isaac." (R. Laird Harris, et al. Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, p. 672.)
Authorized Version (KJV) Translation Count Total: 7 AV virgin 4, maid 2, damsels 1
And yes, Chuck - that goes for every single other religion on the planet, equally. There is simply no reason to not treat all religions one's not an adherent of equally.... unless, of course, one of the religions claims to be the one, the true, the ONLY WAY for EVERYONE. In which case, they're philosophically no different from Nazis AFAICT
"Absolute Meaning
If there is an absolute Mind, then there can be absolute meaning. The objective basis for meaning is found in the Mind of God. Whatever an infinite Mind means by something is what it means objectively, infinitely, and absolutely. Therefore, the existence of objective and absolute meaning is grounded in the existence of an absolute Meaner (God)."
And yes, Chuck - that goes for every single other religion on the planet, equally. There is simply no reason to not treat all religions one's not an adherent of equally.... unless, of course, one of the religions claims to be the one, the true, the ONLY WAY for EVERYONE. In which case, they're philosophically no different from Nazis AFAICT
"Absolute Meaning
If there is an absolute Mind, then there can be absolute meaning. The objective basis for meaning is found in the Mind of God. Whatever an infinite Mind means by something is what it means objectively, infinitely, and absolutely. Therefore, the existence of objective and absolute meaning is grounded in the existence of an absolute Meaner (God)."
-p 171 to 172, Systematic Theology, Volume One, Introduction / Bible, Interpretation: The Hermeneutical Precondition, Dr. Norman Geisler
The reason to treat all religions equally would be atheism and to deny that there is one God who is an absolute Mind.
And yes, Chuck - that goes for every single other religion on the planet, equally. There is simply no reason to not treat all religions one's not an adherent of equally.... unless, of course, one of the religions claims to be the one, the true, the ONLY WAY for EVERYONE. In which case, they're philosophically no different from Nazis AFAICT
"Absolute Meaning
If there is an absolute Mind, then there can be absolute meaning. The objective basis for meaning is found in the Mind of God. Whatever an infinite Mind means by something is what it means objectively, infinitely, and absolutely. Therefore, the existence of objective and absolute meaning is grounded in the existence of an absolute Meaner (God)."
-p 171 to 172, Systematic Theology, Volume One, Introduction / Bible, Interpretation: The Hermeneutical Precondition, Dr. Norman Geisler
The reason to treat all religions equally would be atheism and to deny that there is one God who is an absolute Mind.
Ah, but I'm not talking about Christian hermeneutics.
I'm talking about how human beings should be treating one another's religious belief systems . It's a simple concept, otherwise known as 'common courtesy'.
Both Hillel the Elder and Jesus (who appears to have been largely of Hillel's school!) are quoted as being in favor of this idea: showing others the respect one wishes to have from them.
Some few delude themselves into imagining that because their faith appears to them to be 'the one true faith', everyone else should give it primacy. Not happening.
I must confess that as a Jew I'm particularly impatient with such utter nonsense. NONE of us can 'prove' to another that the LORD we worship exists - and NONE of us can 'prove' that this faith or that is 'the one and only'......
After all, Chuck: if one could "prove" that YHVH exists or that a given religion is 'the one and only truth', what value would a person's faith in GOD have? Why would YHVH have told us several times in the Bible to *trust* Him?
We respect other people and we respect what other people believe to some extent.
Evidently I didn't make myself clear enough: the equality is the fact that ALL faith are likewise UNprovable. An honest person acknowledges that they cannot produce any 'outside' proof that their particular Scripture is in any way 'truer' or 'holier' than any of the others.
I don't hold all beliefs equal because they're not.
They are 'equal' in being unprovable - no matter how many millions are 'believers', or how many have been martyred for the faith.
What people believe is not equal unless it is true. There is a story about an elephant and the people are blind but one person feels a trunk and thinks that God is a trunk and another person feels the tail and thinks God is a tail. The Elephant spoke so we know that Christianity is true and every other religion is false.
Not quite accurate. There are several versions of the story but here is the gist.There is a story about an elephant and the people are blind but one person feels a trunk and thinks that God is a trunk and another person feels the tail and thinks God is a tail. The Elephant spoke so we know that Christianity is true and every other religion is false.
Please give us a source wherein "Christianity concludes that the elephant did speak.But Christianity concludes that the elephant did speak.
Please give us a source wherein "Christianity concludes that the elephant did speak.But Christianity concludes that the elephant did speak.
Christianity did not originate the story and Christianity cannot rewrite it just as the parables of the Bible cannot be rewritten. The parable of the elephant and the blind men is symbolic of a deeper underlying moral. It is a beautiful story.Our Christian leaders whom I can't identify because I specifically don't know who did it but our Christian leaders heard the story and re-wrote the conclusion of the elephant story because the elephant story is untrue the way it was.
The Bible is the source of speaking for the elephant. God spoke and it is recorded in the Bible.
Christianity did not originate the story and Christianity cannot rewrite it just as the parables of the Bible cannot be rewritten. The parable of the elephant and the blind men is symbolic of a deeper underlying moral. It is a beautiful story.Our Christian leaders whom I can't identify because I specifically don't know who did it but our Christian leaders heard the story and re-wrote the conclusion of the elephant story because the elephant story is untrue the way it was.
The Bible is the source of speaking for the elephant. God spoke and it is recorded in the Bible.
***
"The moral of the story is that there may be some truth to what someone says. Sometimes we can see that truth and sometimes not because they may have different perspective which we may not agree too. So, rather than arguing like the blind men, we should say, "Maybe you have your reasons." This way we dont get in arguments.
In Jainism, it is explained that truth can be stated in seven different ways. So, you can see how broad our religion is. It teaches us to be tolerant towards others for their viewpoints. This allows us to live in harmony with the people of different thinking. This is known as the Syadvada, Anekantvad, or the theory of Manifold Predictions."
ELEPHANT AND THE BLIND MEN
Given that you cannot identify even one source, I will give your statement the consideration it deserves.
By all accounts, the origin of the story is India.How do you know your own sources didn't steal it? A lot of stories are passed down from person to person and they change over time.
The parables of the Bible are not based on reality, either. They are simply short stories with a moral. You can give whatever conclusion you wish to the parable of the elephant and the blind men but you cannot attribute it to Christianity.That is the conclusion I give the story because the story isn't based on reality and we can't change reality just because someone doesn't like reality.
And only you heard him. The elephant spoke