martybegan
Diamond Member
- Apr 5, 2010
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Under this amendment, they could deny voting to the persons as described, and it would only have impact on their # of electors for president, and their representation in the house.
The 15th amendment is a far better example, but again, it only gives certain limits to voter requirements.
The above amendment directly refers to 'the right to vote'. If there is no such thing, why is it mentioned?
The right still comes from the States, all the feds are doing is saying certain conditions the States cannot use to determine eligibility.
No it doesn't. You need to learn to give up.
The federal government dictates to the States who they must allow to vote. The States cannot restrict that right in conflict with the Constitution or with federal law.
That is why the Constitution has a Supremacy Clause. The Supremacy Clause makes the Constitution, federal law, and the Supreme Court's power of judicial review
the supreme law of the land.
But the right to vote still flows from being a citizen of a given State, not the federal government.
Wrong. You are a citizen of the United States. You are a resident of any given state. The Constitution gives US citizens the right to vote, period.
You are also a Citizen of the State. When you lose your voting rights due to felony, what level of government do you go to to get it back?