God created evil for his pleasure. Do you recognize the pleasure of creating and doing evil?

Another source/link to the Hebrew text of Genesis 11:1


וַיְהִי כָל-הָאָרֶץ, שָׂפָה אֶחָת, וּדְבָרִים, אֲחָדִים.1 And the whole earth was of one language and of one speech.
You read my post yesterday on that site but you were too intent on outsmarting me (in a nice way) to actually read it.
Guess where that interpretation comes from?
Yep, the KJV.
I love that site but the number of mistranslated words has prompted myself and many others to tell them to change it.
They don't respond and I know why...their translation is an image, not html text, and it would be hell to change.
 
Another link for you (all) to examine:


1 Everyone on earth had the same language and the same words.

vai-HEE khol ha-A-retz sa-FAH e-KHAT ud-va-REEM a-kha-DEEM

א וַיְהִי כָל־הָאָרֶץ שָׂפָה אֶחָת וּדְבָרִים אֲחָדִים

tt
 
Continuing:

So there are two Hebrew words in Gen. 11:1 involved referring to the same thing

H8193/language/lit. termination/lip(as a natural boundary)/margin
שָׂפָה
śâphâh

From Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew definitions:

H8193
שׂפת / שׂפה
śâphâh / śepheth
BDB Definition:
1) lip, language, speech, shore, bank, brink, brim, side, edge, border, binding
1a) lip (as body part)
1b) language
1c) edge, shore, bank (of cup, sea, river, etc)
Part of Speech: noun feminine
A Related Word by BDB/Strong’s Number: probably from H5595 or H8192 through the idea of termination (compare H5490)

The root soph/H5490/termination

Also "and" barim

H1697
דּבר
dâbâr
BDB Definition:
1) speech, word, speaking, thing
1a) speech
1b) saying, utterance
1c) word, words
1d) business, occupation, acts, matter, case, something, manner
Part of Speech: noun masculine
A Related Word by BDB/Strong’s Number: from H1696

[H1696/dabar/speak words]

Bottom line - these two Hebrew words overlap in definition as speaking words of language. Neither word ever means "intention" as you assert. Next post - a third Hebrew word from the context:
Wow!
God created the universe using Hebrew.
No two Hebrew words words the same thing.
Hebrew is too small of a language for that.

Dibar
Amar

There are entire volumes written on these words and what they mean...
I can only point out what I know and it ain't much.

Dibar means..
- A Thing that exists
- A Bee
- a terse Commanding statement

Amar...
- Speech explaining according to how the listener needs to hear, whether emotionally or intellectually.

When the 2 are used together, it does not necessarily indicate back to back chronologically.

Sah-fah...hardly ever appears anywhere.
So, if there is a source that exists for your assertions - why aren't you giving references?

I gave you my sources. Did you need links?

Here is one:

There's no way I'm using a Christian site to translate God's word.
No references?
Because your example already has a contradiction in itself...
From the right to the left of the Hebrew, words 5 and 10 are the same word in Hebrew but translated differently in English.

How can I trust web sites to spend the enormous amount of time to get it right when almost all of the English comes from a Christian source and Christians don't consider each and every letter and space to be essential?

True, there is more than one definition of the two Hebrew words in Genesis 11:1 - your asserted definition "intention" is not one of the definitions - and you persist in failing to quote your sources.

There is no contradiction in translating a Hebrew word with similar English words.

So is Mechon-Mamre a 'Christian' source?
Anything other than learning Hebrew from a Hebrew scholar in not a truly valid source.
If you spent the next 5 years spending this much time and intellectual effort on each an every verse you would be way ahead of the game and just about realize that, like myself, you need 100 more years to sort of start to understand what the verses mean, left alone what the words mean.
And that's just the start...
Why does this verse come before that verse?
Why does this verse come after that verse?
Why are the verses connected with a vav, indicating that the last verse caused this verse to exist.
Why are the verses not connected with a vav, indicating that the last verse indicates a novelty unrelated to the past..
Why does this chapter appear here?
Why does the Torah use the word Hee-Nay-nee?
1000s of more questions...just to read it, not understand the underlying themes.

Try translating Genesis 1:1 word by word and it will blow your mind.
Then check what the Zohar has to say about that.
 
From the same link:


"11:1 Everyone on earth had the same language

The Hebrew word for ‘language,’ safa (שפה), also appears in Sefer Tzefanya (3:9) when the prophet describes a safa b’rurah (שפה ברורה), ‘purity of speech,’ that will be shared by all the nations of the world in the end of days: “For then I will make the peoples pure of speech, so that they all invoke Hashem by name and serve Him with one accord.” Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra comments that the pure language that Tzefanya promises is the Hebrew language. In future times, the world will begin to learn Hebrew, the language of Creation. This promise has begun to come true in our age. Not only has the Hebrew language been revitalized over the past century as the spoken language in the Jewish homeland, but in more recent years, thousands of non-Yehudim."

Note that we also believe after Armageddon all will speak the same language and that this will likely be Hebrew.
 
Another link for you (all) to examine:


1 Everyone on earth had the same language and the same words.

vai-HEE khol ha-A-retz sa-FAH e-KHAT ud-va-REEM a-kha-DEEM

א וַיְהִי כָל־הָאָרֶץ שָׂפָה אֶחָת וּדְבָרִים אֲחָדִים

tt
Which site?
I got a Google search page, not that result.
I'll find the problem when I get to that specific page.
By the way, the entire verse is interpreted incorrectly...
And it was all the earth was of one intention and one (the last two words are very hard to translate because they contradict the last phrase) and a unity of commands.
Wow! You have shed some light on me...the peer pressure then must have been unbearable...no one down the line questioned a command.

In Hebrew, the word "speech" does no mean language, it means means of communication.
You have to decide whether you want to think
or think like a Christian aka the way the Holy Roman Church wanted you to think.
 
From the same link:


"11:1 Everyone on earth had the same language

The Hebrew word for ‘language,’ safa (שפה), also appears in Sefer Tzefanya (3:9) when the prophet describes a safa b’rurah (שפה ברורה), ‘purity of speech,’ that will be shared by all the nations of the world in the end of days: “For then I will make the peoples pure of speech, so that they all invoke Hashem by name and serve Him with one accord.” Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra comments that the pure language that Tzefanya promises is the Hebrew language. In future times, the world will begin to learn Hebrew, the language of Creation. This promise has begun to come true in our age. Not only has the Hebrew language been revitalized over the past century as the spoken language in the Jewish homeland, but in more recent years, thousands of non-Yehudim."

Note that we also believe after Armageddon all will speak the same language and that this will likely be Hebrew.
Read the paragraph again because you got it wrong.

Define purity of speech...since it doesn't mean the words, what do you think it means?

Read Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra's comment again...When will Hebrew be the universal language because it never was.
 
From the same link:


"11:1 Everyone on earth had the same language

The Hebrew word for ‘language,’ safa (שפה), also appears in Sefer Tzefanya (3:9) when the prophet describes a safa b’rurah (שפה ברורה), ‘purity of speech,’ that will be shared by all the nations of the world in the end of days: “For then I will make the peoples pure of speech, so that they all invoke Hashem by name and serve Him with one accord.” Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra comments that the pure language that Tzefanya promises is the Hebrew language. In future times, the world will begin to learn Hebrew, the language of Creation. This promise has begun to come true in our age. Not only has the Hebrew language been revitalized over the past century as the spoken language in the Jewish homeland, but in more recent years, thousands of non-Yehudim."

Note that we also believe after Armageddon all will speak the same language and that this will likely be Hebrew.
Read the paragraph again because you got it wrong.

Define purity of speech...since it doesn't mean the words, what do you think it means?

Read Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra's comment again...When will Hebrew be the universal language because it never was.
I would love for you to interpret Genesis 1:1 word by word because that's where you should be starting if you really want to get the gist of how the Torah and Hebrew and the Jews are intertwined.
 
While waiting on your link and/or references - more links:


11:1 And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech.


Now the entire earth was of one language and uniform words. אוַיְהִ֥י כָל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים:
 
Another link for you (all) to examine:


1 Everyone on earth had the same language and the same words.

vai-HEE khol ha-A-retz sa-FAH e-KHAT ud-va-REEM a-kha-DEEM

א וַיְהִי כָל־הָאָרֶץ שָׂפָה אֶחָת וּדְבָרִים אֲחָדִים

tt
Which site?
I got a Google search page, not that result.
I'll find the problem when I get to that specific page.
By the way, the entire verse is interpreted incorrectly...
And it was all the earth was of one intention and one (the last two words are very hard to translate because they contradict the last phrase) and a unity of commands.
Wow! You have shed some light on me...the peer pressure then must have been unbearable...no one down the line questioned a command.

In Hebrew, the word "speech" does no mean language, it means means of communication.
You have to decide whether you want to think
or think like a Christian aka the way the Holy Roman Church wanted you to think.
Just click on the link.


It is from the Israel Bible.

I am one of Jehovah's Witnesses - we get our beliefs from the Bible, not the Catholic church.

I gave you the definitions of both Hebrew words in Genesis 11:1 - you still have not given a reference or link anyone reading this thread can check on for accuracy and context.
 
The Septuagint of the 3rd to 2nd century BCE for Genesis 11:1


καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῗλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

Greek χεῗλος cheilos = language.

Greek φωνὴ phone = speech (words)


ΚΑΙ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν, καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσι.
AND all the earth was one lip, and there was one language to all.

[Hebrew Tanach]
‎1 ‏וַֽיְהִ֥י כָל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים׃
1 wayəhî ḵāl-hā’āreṣ śāfâ ’eḥāṯ ûḏəḇārîm ’ăḥāḏîm:


[Greek LXX}
καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

OK - I gave you multiple sources and links from scholarly sources including Jewish which all agree.

I am still waiting for a reference or link for your conclusion that the Hebrew word safa means intention rather than language/lip. I will stop my research [independent] until you provide references or links for us to examine.

Later I will post scientific evidence that Genesis 11:1-9 is accurate.

For now, please consider one of our articles on that subject - here is a link to it:

 
Another link for you (all) to examine:


1 Everyone on earth had the same language and the same words.

vai-HEE khol ha-A-retz sa-FAH e-KHAT ud-va-REEM a-kha-DEEM

א וַיְהִי כָל־הָאָרֶץ שָׂפָה אֶחָת וּדְבָרִים אֲחָדִים

tt
Which site?
I got a Google search page, not that result.
I'll find the problem when I get to that specific page.
By the way, the entire verse is interpreted incorrectly...
And it was all the earth was of one intention and one (the last two words are very hard to translate because they contradict the last phrase) and a unity of commands.
Wow! You have shed some light on me...the peer pressure then must have been unbearable...no one down the line questioned a command.

In Hebrew, the word "speech" does no mean language, it means means of communication.
You have to decide whether you want to think
or think like a Christian aka the way the Holy Roman Church wanted you to think.
Just click on the link.


It is from the Israel Bible.

I am one of Jehovah's Witnesses - we get our beliefs from the Bible, not the Catholic church.

I gave you the definitions of both Hebrew words in Genesis 11:1 - you still have not given a reference or link anyone reading this thread can check on for accuracy and context.
And you still don’t understand the paragraph you are quoting.
That’s alright; it’s takes a bit to see what one has not already presupposed.
 
The Septuagint of the 3rd to 2nd century BCE for Genesis 11:1


καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῗλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

Greek χεῗλος cheilos = language.

Greek φωνὴ phone = speech (words)


ΚΑΙ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν, καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσι.
AND all the earth was one lip, and there was one language to all.

[Hebrew Tanach]
‎1 ‏וַֽיְהִ֥י כָל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים׃
1 wayəhî ḵāl-hā’āreṣ śāfâ ’eḥāṯ ûḏəḇārîm ’ăḥāḏîm:


[Greek LXX}
καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

OK - I gave you multiple sources and links from scholarly sources including Jewish which all agree.

I am still waiting for a reference or link for your conclusion that the Hebrew word safa means intention rather than language/lip. I will stop my research [independent] until you provide references or links for us to examine.

Later I will post scientific evidence that Genesis 11:1-9 is accurate.

For now, please consider one of our articles on that subject - here is a link to it:

Now you’re using Greek!
 
The Septuagint of the 3rd to 2nd century BCE for Genesis 11:1


καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῗλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

Greek χεῗλος cheilos = language.

Greek φωνὴ phone = speech (words)


ΚΑΙ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν, καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσι.
AND all the earth was one lip, and there was one language to all.

[Hebrew Tanach]
‎1 ‏וַֽיְהִ֥י כָל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים׃
1 wayəhî ḵāl-hā’āreṣ śāfâ ’eḥāṯ ûḏəḇārîm ’ăḥāḏîm:


[Greek LXX}
καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

OK - I gave you multiple sources and links from scholarly sources including Jewish which all agree.

I am still waiting for a reference or link for your conclusion that the Hebrew word safa means intention rather than language/lip. I will stop my research [independent] until you provide references or links for us to examine.

Later I will post scientific evidence that Genesis 11:1-9 is accurate.

For now, please consider one of our articles on that subject - here is a link to it:

Are you aware of the origin of the Septuagint?
That’s presuming you’ve ever read the Midrash.
 
From the same link:


"11:1 Everyone on earth had the same language

The Hebrew word for ‘language,’ safa (שפה), also appears in Sefer Tzefanya (3:9) when the prophet describes a safa b’rurah (שפה ברורה), ‘purity of speech,’ that will be shared by all the nations of the world in the end of days: “For then I will make the peoples pure of speech, so that they all invoke Hashem by name and serve Him with one accord.” Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra comments that the pure language that Tzefanya promises is the Hebrew language. In future times, the world will begin to learn Hebrew, the language of Creation. This promise has begun to come true in our age. Not only has the Hebrew language been revitalized over the past century as the spoken language in the Jewish homeland, but in more recent years, thousands of non-Yehudim."

Note that we also believe after Armageddon all will speak the same language and that this will likely be Hebrew.
Read the paragraph again because you got it wrong.

Define purity of speech...since it doesn't mean the words, what do you think it means?

Read Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra's comment again...When will Hebrew be the universal language because it never was.
I would love for you to interpret Genesis 1:1 word by word because that's where you should be starting if you really want to get the gist of how the Torah and Hebrew and the Jews are intertwined.

Off topic - but since you asked I will note one point from Genesis 1:1 - Most translations read "In the beginning." However, the Hebrew text does not contain the Hebrew definite article (ha) and therefore Genesis 1:1 could also be translated "In a beginning."

That is also scientifically accurate - both our universe and planet Earth had a beginning.

Also, please note that most Bible translations fail to note the Hebrew imperfect verb state used often in Genesis chapter 1 which means 'action in progress not yet complete'. As a result, many translations contradict the scientific evidence of gradual change - e.g. the gradual appearance of light on the surface of the earth (twice). '

And remember, on topic - Genesis 6:6 and context.
 
Another link for you (all) to examine:


1 Everyone on earth had the same language and the same words.

vai-HEE khol ha-A-retz sa-FAH e-KHAT ud-va-REEM a-kha-DEEM

א וַיְהִי כָל־הָאָרֶץ שָׂפָה אֶחָת וּדְבָרִים אֲחָדִים

tt
Which site?
I got a Google search page, not that result.
I'll find the problem when I get to that specific page.
By the way, the entire verse is interpreted incorrectly...
And it was all the earth was of one intention and one (the last two words are very hard to translate because they contradict the last phrase) and a unity of commands.
Wow! You have shed some light on me...the peer pressure then must have been unbearable...no one down the line questioned a command.

In Hebrew, the word "speech" does no mean language, it means means of communication.
You have to decide whether you want to think
or think like a Christian aka the way the Holy Roman Church wanted you to think.
Just click on the link.


It is from the Israel Bible.

I am one of Jehovah's Witnesses - we get our beliefs from the Bible, not the Catholic church.

I gave you the definitions of both Hebrew words in Genesis 11:1 - you still have not given a reference or link anyone reading this thread can check on for accuracy and context.
I am fully aware of the mechanisms of the JWs.
Your main source is an English translation far removed from the original Hebrew.
Like myself for a very long time you are reading paragraphs without understanding them.
Don’t get emotional...study the paragraphs you are posting.
 
The Septuagint of the 3rd to 2nd century BCE for Genesis 11:1


καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῗλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

Greek χεῗλος cheilos = language.

Greek φωνὴ phone = speech (words)


ΚΑΙ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν, καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσι.
AND all the earth was one lip, and there was one language to all.

[Hebrew Tanach]
‎1 ‏וַֽיְהִ֥י כָל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים׃
1 wayəhî ḵāl-hā’āreṣ śāfâ ’eḥāṯ ûḏəḇārîm ’ăḥāḏîm:


[Greek LXX}
καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

OK - I gave you multiple sources and links from scholarly sources including Jewish which all agree.

I am still waiting for a reference or link for your conclusion that the Hebrew word safa means intention rather than language/lip. I will stop my research [independent] until you provide references or links for us to examine.

Later I will post scientific evidence that Genesis 11:1-9 is accurate.

For now, please consider one of our articles on that subject - here is a link to it:

Now you’re using Greek!
Yes, because Greece influenced the Jews after the Greek Empire as a result of the conquests of Alexander the Great. As a result, most Jews spoke Greek and this prompted Jewish scholars to translate the Bible from Hebrew to Greek during the 3rd to 2nd century BCE. I thought you wanted Jewish sources. The Greek Septuagint is a Jewish translation.
 
From the same link:


"11:1 Everyone on earth had the same language

The Hebrew word for ‘language,’ safa (שפה), also appears in Sefer Tzefanya (3:9) when the prophet describes a safa b’rurah (שפה ברורה), ‘purity of speech,’ that will be shared by all the nations of the world in the end of days: “For then I will make the peoples pure of speech, so that they all invoke Hashem by name and serve Him with one accord.” Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra comments that the pure language that Tzefanya promises is the Hebrew language. In future times, the world will begin to learn Hebrew, the language of Creation. This promise has begun to come true in our age. Not only has the Hebrew language been revitalized over the past century as the spoken language in the Jewish homeland, but in more recent years, thousands of non-Yehudim."

Note that we also believe after Armageddon all will speak the same language and that this will likely be Hebrew.
Read the paragraph again because you got it wrong.

Define purity of speech...since it doesn't mean the words, what do you think it means?

Read Rabbi Avraham Ibn Ezra's comment again...When will Hebrew be the universal language because it never was.
I would love for you to interpret Genesis 1:1 word by word because that's where you should be starting if you really want to get the gist of how the Torah and Hebrew and the Jews are intertwined.

Off topic - but since you asked I will note one point from Genesis 1:1 - Most translations read "In the beginning." However, the Hebrew text does not contain the Hebrew definite article (ha) and therefore Genesis 1:1 could also be translated "In a beginning."

That is also scientifically accurate - both our universe and planet Earth had a beginning.

Also, please note that most Bible translations fail to note the Hebrew imperfect verb state used often in Genesis chapter 1 which means 'action in progress not yet complete'. As a result, many translations contradict the scientific evidence of gradual change - e.g. the gradual appearance of light on the surface of the earth (twice). '

And remember, on topic - Genesis 6:6 and context.
The topic is actually realizing that all translations are bad.
Except the word isn’t Rishone, it’s Rashis.
What does Rashis mean?
 
The Septuagint of the 3rd to 2nd century BCE for Genesis 11:1


καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῗλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

Greek χεῗλος cheilos = language.

Greek φωνὴ phone = speech (words)


ΚΑΙ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν, καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσι.
AND all the earth was one lip, and there was one language to all.

[Hebrew Tanach]
‎1 ‏וַֽיְהִ֥י כָל־הָאָ֖רֶץ שָׂפָ֣ה אֶחָ֑ת וּדְבָרִ֖ים אֲחָדִֽים׃
1 wayəhî ḵāl-hā’āreṣ śāfâ ’eḥāṯ ûḏəḇārîm ’ăḥāḏîm:


[Greek LXX}
καὶ ἦν πᾶσα ἡ γῆ χεῖλος ἕν καὶ φωνὴ μία πᾶσιν

OK - I gave you multiple sources and links from scholarly sources including Jewish which all agree.

I am still waiting for a reference or link for your conclusion that the Hebrew word safa means intention rather than language/lip. I will stop my research [independent] until you provide references or links for us to examine.

Later I will post scientific evidence that Genesis 11:1-9 is accurate.

For now, please consider one of our articles on that subject - here is a link to it:

Now you’re using Greek!
Yes, because Greece influenced the Jews after the Greek Empire as a result of the conquests of Alexander the Great. As a result, most Jews spoke Greek and this prompted Jewish scholars to translate the Bible from Hebrew to Greek during the 3rd to 2nd century BCE. I thought you wanted Jewish sources. The Greek Septuagint is a Jewish translation.
Dig more into the story.
Also remember that the Jews never ever used the Septuagint. Why?
 
Another link for you (all) to examine:


1 Everyone on earth had the same language and the same words.

vai-HEE khol ha-A-retz sa-FAH e-KHAT ud-va-REEM a-kha-DEEM

א וַיְהִי כָל־הָאָרֶץ שָׂפָה אֶחָת וּדְבָרִים אֲחָדִים

tt
Which site?
I got a Google search page, not that result.
I'll find the problem when I get to that specific page.
By the way, the entire verse is interpreted incorrectly...
And it was all the earth was of one intention and one (the last two words are very hard to translate because they contradict the last phrase) and a unity of commands.
Wow! You have shed some light on me...the peer pressure then must have been unbearable...no one down the line questioned a command.

In Hebrew, the word "speech" does no mean language, it means means of communication.
You have to decide whether you want to think
or think like a Christian aka the way the Holy Roman Church wanted you to think.
Just click on the link.


It is from the Israel Bible.

I am one of Jehovah's Witnesses - we get our beliefs from the Bible, not the Catholic church.

I gave you the definitions of both Hebrew words in Genesis 11:1 - you still have not given a reference or link anyone reading this thread can check on for accuracy and context.
I am fully aware of the mechanisms of the JWs.
Your main source is an English translation far removed from the original Hebrew.
Like myself for a very long time you are reading paragraphs without understanding them.
Don’t get emotional...study the paragraphs you are posting.
False. NW is directly from the Hebrew text to English. One proof of this is that we translate the Divine Name into English in its nearly 7,000 occurrences in the Hebrew Scriptures into English as Jehovah not Lord. H3068/yehovah/Jehovah - not H113/adon/Lord nor H136/adonay/Lord (emphatic).

KJV only does this in four of the nearly 7,000 occurrences of the Divine Name - e.g. Psalms 83:18.

Talk about evil - removing the name of the author of the Bible is blasphemous. And it is not just Christendom's Bible translations that remove the Divine Name in its Bible translations - Jewish Bible translations do this as well. At least Jewish Hebrew texts have the Divine Name in Hebrew. And the Jewish Greek Septuagint had the Divine Name in Hebrew characters until it was removed from copies after Jesus' time.
 
So, if it wasn't Jews that worked on the Septuagint, who did?

From the Jewish Encyclopedia:

jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/3269-bible-translations
"
"The Septuagint.
The oldest and most important of all the versions made by Jews is that called "The Septuagint" ("Interpretatio septuaginta virorum" or "seniorum"). It is a monument of the Greek spoken by the large and important Jewish community of Alexandria; not of classic Greek, nor even of the Hellenistic style affected by Alexandrian writers.


"Septuagint, abbreviation LXX, the earliest extant Greek translation of the Old Testament from the original Hebrew. The Septuagint was presumably made for the Jewish community in Egypt when Greek was the common language throughout the region. Analysis of the language has established that the Torah, or Pentateuch (the first five books of the Old Testament), was translated near the middle of the 3rd century bce and that the rest of the Old Testament was translated in the 2nd century bce."
 

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