martybegan
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- Apr 5, 2010
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Can you give some examples of such ruthlessness? In comparison with the Anglos.Worse in comparison with the Anglo-Saxons, as an example? And how this 'worseness' can be measured?The Spanish were the worst, but all Europeans came over and exploited, again, due to the technological disparity I am not shocked
The Latin American countries have a significantly larger proportion of the Natives and mestizos in their population, than the US does. That draws some conclusions, doesn't it?
That has mostly to do with the Spanish cultures lack of issues with interbreeding with the natives, something the more puritanical English settlers did far less.
When it came to exploiting however, the Spanish were far more ruthless, again probably due to their history of fighting off Islamic invaders for centuries before their colonization movement.
Fall of Tenochtitlan - Wikipedia.